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Question 1:

What is a potential downside of having more than four storage paths per datastore?

A. increases storage latency for VM

B. limits the number of LUNs per host

C. limits the storage protocols

D. limits the path selection policies

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

What are two requirements to enable EVC in a vSphere DRS cluster? (Choose two.)

A. CPUs must be from the same vendor.

B. CPUs must be in the same family and of the same speed.

C. No VMs may be running in the cluster.

D. EVC must use the lowest possible baseline supported by the hardware.

Correct Answer: AD


Question 3:

Which port is used for communication between ESXi and vSphere Data protection?

A. 80

B. 22

C. 443

D. 902

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

Which three source object types are available for subscription when creating a subscripted content library in vSphere 6.5? (Choose three.)

A. CIFS repository

B. vSphere 6 library

C. HTTP server

D. vCD 5.5 catalog

E. 3rd-party library

Correct Answer: BDE


Question 5:

A scripted upgrade of ESXi fails due to an incorrect parameter in the upgrade script. What file must the administrator modify to correct the problem?

A. boot.cfg

B. vmreconfig.pl

C. ks.cfg

D. hostinfo.pl

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

What configuration option would ensure that a virtual NUMA topology is defined on VMs having more than eight virtual CPUs?

A. cupid.coresPerSocket

B. numa.vcpu.maxPerVirtualNode

C. numa.vcpu.min

D. numa.vcpu.followcoresocket

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

A vSphere content library administrator is attempting to unpublish the content library, but the option is grayed out as shown in the Exhibit.

Which statement identifies the reason for not being able to unpublish?

A. Underlying storage for this content library is not accessible.

B. A synchronization operation is in progress with this content library.

C. This content library is optimized for syncing over HTTP.

D. There are active subscriptions on this content library.

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

A vSphere Administrator has received complaints that an MSCS cluster is failing over during vMotion operations. What action would minimize migrations for only the MSCS VMs?

A. Configure the VM DRS Automation level to override as Partially Automated.

B. Configure the migration threshold to Conservative for the vSphere DRS cluster.

C. Configure the vSphere DRS cluster to be Partially Automated.

D. Change the pathing policy to Round Robin for MSCS RDMS.

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

Which two features require the use of Host Profiles? (Choose two.)

A. vRealize Suite

B. Auto Deploy

C. shared storage

D. Host Customization

Correct Answer: BD


Question 10:

Which three design requirements must be satisfied to enable RAID-6 objects in a VMware vSAN cluster? (Choose three.)

A. deduplication and compression

B. at least six hosts contributing storage

C. vSAN Advanced license or higher

D. vSAN stretched cluster

E. All Flash configuration

Correct Answer: BCE

https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-vSphere/6.5/com.vmware.vsphere.virtualsan.doc/GUIDAD408FA8- 5898-4541-9F82-FE72E6CD6227.html https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-vSphere/6.5/com.vmware.vsphere.virtualsan.doc/ GUIDED76D553- 0AB5-44EC-BEB7-A054C5BAE7A3.html https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-vSphere/6.5/com.vmware.vsphere.virtualsan.doc/GUID- 6D818555-8DE8-4F06-9498-66903FB9C775.html


Question 11:

What are three benefits of using a few large-capacity LUNs instead of many small-capacity LUNs? (Choose three.)

A. More filexibility to create virtual machines without adding new LUNs.

B. More filexibility for resizing virtual disks.

C. Less wasted storage space.

D. Better performance because there is less contention for a single volume.

E. Fewer VMFS datastores to manage.

Correct Answer: ABE

You might want fewer, larger LUNs for the following reasons:


Question 12:

Which metric in the Exhibit would identify high latency for a storage device?

A. KAVG/cmd

B. DAVG/cmd

C. GAVG/cmd

D. QAVG/cmd

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

Which two statements are true about Highly Available vSphere Auto Deploy infrastructure? (Choose two.)

A. It is a prerequisite for using vSphere Auto Deploy with stateful install.

B. It requires two or more Auto Deploy servers.

C. It is a prerequisite for using vSphere Auto Deploy with stateless caching.

D. It helps prevent data loss.

Correct Answer: AD

In many production situations, a highly available Auto Deploy infrastructure is required to prevent data loss. Such an infrastructure is also a prerequisite for using Auto Deploy with stateless caching.


Question 14:

What VM Monitoring setting would ensure that the failure interval for a virtual machine is defined as 120 seconds?

A. High

B. Medium

C. Low

D. Normal

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

What counter should an administrator check to determine if a virtual machine is ballooning?

A. swapinRate

B. vmmemctl

C. vmmemctltarget

D. swapped

Correct Answer: B

Memory Ballooning is the memory reclamation technique used by hypervisor to reclaim the memory back from the virtual machine. When ESXi host running low on physical memory, It uses ballooning driver (vmmemctl.sys) to determine the how much memory from virtual machines can be get back to prevent the hypervisor swapping.


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Question 1:

An administrator is implementing LTO-5 drives in their backup solution. They plan to disable hardware data compression through their backup appliance.

What is the maximum data rate that can be achieved?

A. 80 MB/s

B. 120 MB/s

C. 140 MB/s

D. 160 MB/s

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

What advantage do NVDIMMs have over other server-based memory technologies?

A. Operate at lower voltages to save on power costs.

B. Lower cost per GB of capacity

C. Require less cooling than traditional memory DIMMs

D. Can retain contents even after a power loss

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://topics-cdn.dell.com/pdf/poweredge-r740_users-guide3_en-us.pdf


Question 3:

What is an accurate statement in reference to software RAID?

A. Software RAID does not have any data integrity issues

B. Software RAID requires a hardware license

C. Software RAID is an additional cost

D. Software RAID uses CPU resources

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

What is a consideration for a hardware administrator who is physically installing multiple servers into a rack?

A. Observe load requirements specified in documentation for the switch.

B. Avoid unevenly loading the rack and creating a hazard.

C. Ensure that the server can connect to Windows updates

D. Ensure that the associated UPS can also power the top-of-rack switch.

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

What types of data transfer are used by Dell EMC servers to connect mass storage devices?

A. USB, Ethernet, SSD, and CSI

B. SAS, USB, Ethernet, and SSID

C. SSID, CSI, USB, and SAS

D. Ethernet, SSID, CSI, and SAS

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

Which RAID level is recommended for high speed data access and maximum storage capacity?

A. RAID 0

B. RAID 1

C. RAID 5

D. RAID 6

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

What is the Dell EMC iSM?

A. Agent that expands iDRAC management functionality into the host operating system

B. Program that is installed and provides one-to-one systems management functionality

C. Systems management console that simplifies monitoring of multiple Dell EMC servers

D. Out-of-band management platform on Dell EMC servers

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.dell.com/support/article/pk/en/pkbsd1/sln310557/dell-emc-idrac-service-module? lang=en


Question 8:

Which protocol resolves IP addresses into MAC addresses?

A. ARP

B. DHCP

C. DNS

D. STP

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.globalknowledge.com/blog/2009/08/28/address-resolution-protocol-arp/


Question 9:

For which use case is Dell EMC OpenManage Essentials recommended for installation?

A. Comprehensive, one-to-one systems management solution for remote or local servers

B. Management console for one-to-many monitoring of Dell EMC infrastructure

C. Operation of hardware while iDRAC is non-functional

D. Management and integration of operating system updates across an entire environment

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.dell.com/support/home/pk/en/pkbsd1/drivers/driversdetails?driverid=3mrw4


Question 10:

What occurs during the Data Wiping process?

A. Destroys CDs and DVDs by pulverizing and cross-cut shredding

B. Disposes sensitive data using file detection, disk formatting, and file encryption

C. Temporarily removes data from a readwrite medium so that it can no longer be read

D. Logically connects storage media to a bulk-wiping device

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.dell.com/support/article/pk/en/pkbsd1/sln300245/using-the-dell-bios-data-wipe- function-for-optiplex-precision-and-latitude-systems-built-after-november-2015?lang=en


Question 11:

What should an administrator review, prior to deploying an operating system (OS), to confirm there are no hardware incompatibilities with the desired OS?

A. iDRAC SEL

B. HCL

C. BPA

D. LCC Log

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

What is the purpose of the DNS role?

A. Send out emails from a server to a client

B. Translate domain names into IP address

C. transfer computer files between a client and a server

D. Distribute and update dynamic IP address

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

What does well organized documentation help a system administrator improve?

A. Cost of running a server

B. Visibility of a system during an audit.

C. Processor efficiency

D. Recovery time in the event of a failure

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

Which advanced feature does a Dell EMC energy-smart power supply offer?

A. Provides thermal management of the supply

B. Reverses airflow to meet data center requirements

C. Throttles output to power-heavy components

D. Ability to update firmware without the need for downtime

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

What is commonly used by a system administrator to prevent electrostatic discharge when working on components inside a Dell EMC PowerEdge server?

A. Uninterruptible Power Supply

B. Voltage Regulator

C. Anti-static wrist strap

D. Non anti-static floor mat

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://topics-cdn.dell.com/pdf/poweredge-c6320p_users-guide15_en-us.pdf


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Question 1:

Which must you perform in IRIS to assign a device to a Design Group?

A. Right-click the device and select Set Layer Membership

B. Right-click the device and select Set Design Group

C. Drag and drop the device into the Site

D. Drag and drop the device into the Design Group

Correct Answer: D


Question 2:

A wiring closet with a POE switch is 250 feet (76 meters) away from an AP on a building floor. The AP\’s smart-rate port is connected to a smart-rate port on the switch, which is capable of 10 Gbps. The cable type is Cat5e STP.

What is the maximum speed that the customer can expect from the connected AP?

A. 2.5 Gbps

B. 1 Gbps

C. 5 Gbps

D. 10 Gbps

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

A customer has some employees that travel to various locations, where these employees will need Wi-Fi access at these locations. Because many of these locations do not have wireless support, the employees will need to carry an AP

solution with them. Internet connectivity, if it doesn\’t exist at these locations, will be provided by a national phone company USB wireless card which will be connected to AP. The wireless solution needs minimal bandwidth, but needs to

minimally support 802.1 lac wave 1 devices.

Which Aruba AP wireless solution would meet the needs of these employees most effectively and cost efficiently?

A. 318

B. 303H

C. 365

D. 203R

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

A network architect is redesigning a wireless network. The architect begins by analyzing the number of spatial streams supported by APs of various vendors as well as the wireless devices currently in the network, if the company wants to ensure that new wireless design, including user wireless devices, support Multi-User MIMO (MU-MIMO). Which standard or standards must the wireless products support?

A. Only 802.11ax and 8011.ac

B. Only 802.11ax

C. Only 802.11ax,802.1lac, and 802.l1n

D. Only 802.11ax,802.11ac, 802.11n, and 802.11a

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

Refer to the exhibit.

When planning the use of Cat7 cabling for a SmartRate connection between an ArubaOS AP and an ArubaOS switch, which sections should be considered when calculating distance?

A. A C

B. A B

C. A B C D

D. A B C

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

A company is redesigning their wireless network and will be upgrading all devices to support the latest wireless standards. The company is not near any radar installations. In order to keep wireless NIC power levels as low as possible to reduce interference issues and to take advantage of radar frequency ranges, what IEEE standard should APs support?

A. 802.11r

B. 802.11 ax

C. S02.11V

D. S02.11h

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

A network architect has created two sites in IRIS and defined network devices for each site. From which window would a network architect connect the two sites together?

A. Topology

B. Site-1

C. Catalog

D. Start Page

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

A network architect is creating a new wired design for a warehouse building. As a best practice, what length should the architect allow for the service loop in the wiring closets in this environment?

A. 3-10 feet (1-3 m)

B. 3 feet (1 m)

C. 15-30 feet (5-10 m)

D. 30-60 feet (10-20 m)

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

A customer requires a campus core virtualization solution that supports a dual control and management planes, as well as active-active forwarding paths. Which solution would meet the customer\’s requirements?

A. Mesh stacking

B. VSX

C. Backplane stacking

D. VSF

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

A company has two buildings on a campus that are approximately 700 feet (214 meters) apart with a clear line of site. No fiber exists between the buildings; however, there is a need for connecting the networks in the buildings together. The

connection between the two buildings will need to support peak rates over 1 Gbps.

Which solution should the company choose that will meet their requirements as well as being cost- effective?

A. Two outdoor AP 367s

B. Two outdoor AP 387s

C. Two outdoor AP 510s

D. Multi-mode fiber between campus switches

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

A university department has a program in video processing and editing. Students in the department use Wi-Fi to interact with the video servers. The editing and processing is done by the students accessing and using the video servers. However, the students must then stream their results, via Wi- Fi to their laptops to verify the results. A network architect has determined that no more than 20 APs will be needed for the Wi-Fi solution. Because of the large amount of bandwidth used during the streaming, the Aruba mobility controller solution will need to support 10 Gbps links.

Which solution would cost-effectively meet this customer\’s requirements?

A. 7008

B. 7205

C. 7240XM

D. 7030

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

A network architect imports a floorplan defined in a PNG file format. What is the function of the measurement tool in Aruba\’s VisualRF?

A. Define the appropriate dimensions of each object in a Floorplan View

B. Define the appropriate dimensions of a Floorplan and Building View

C. Define the appropriate dimensions of a Floorplan View

D. Define the appropriate dimensions of each room in a Floorplan View

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

A company needs an upgrade of its access layer switches. The solution requires that devices connected to the access layer by authenticated and their traffic processed by the firewall features of the Aruba Mobility Controllers. Which solution should the company implement?

A. PAPI mobility

B. Dynamic segmentation

C. iPsec tunneling

D. GRE tunneling

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

A customer is purchasing Aruba 555 APs for a new wireless network. The APs will be pre-staged as campus APs (CAPs) and be managed by a controller solution During the pre-staging process, console access to the APs might be

necessary.

Which console connection cable should the customer purchase for the 555 APs?

A. RJ-45

B. RS-232

C. USB-A

D. Micro-B USB

Correct Answer: D


Question 15:

A company needs to replace an existing legacy wireless and wired solution with one that supports features like 802 11 ax for APs and logical switching for switches. The company is located on a single floor with two wiring closets. Assume that there will be 10 APs connected via POE to each wiring closet, along with 36 wired user connections All switches on a floor should be configured in a single stack. The distance between wiring closets is 100 feet (31 meters). Which switching solution will minimally provide 10 Gbps uplinks at the most cost-effective price, while still meeting the company\’s requirements?

A. 2930M switches

B. 2930F switches

C. 5406R switches

D. 3810M switches

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

Sprint planning should result in a commitment on what will be delivered at the end of the Sprint. Who makes this commitment?

A. The Product Owner

B. The Scrum Master

C. The team

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

Which Scrum ritual is meant to look back and improve upon the finished Sprint?

A. Daily Scrum.

B. Sprint Retrospective.

C. Sprint Review.

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

What is a Sprint?

A. A brainstorming session in Extreme programming to generate design ideas.

B. A race between two developers to see who can complete a feature fastest.

C. One iteration in the Scrum methodology.

D. The last iteration in the Scrum project, when the team works long hours to finish the project.

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

What is the primary responsibility of a Scrum Master in order to keep a Scrum team working at its peak level of productivity?

A. Keeping high priority features at the top of the Product Backlog.

B. Not allowing changes to the Product Backlog once the Sprint begins.

C. Supporting the team\’s decisions and resolving the team\’s issues.

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

A customer requests a report that summarizes functionality added and defects found and fixed, right at the end of a Sprint.

Who may best prepare this report?

A. The Product Owner

B. The Scrum Master

C. The team

D. This type of report should not be prepared.

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

Who should update the work estimates during the Sprint?

A. The Development Team

B. The Project Manager

C. The Product Owner

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

Which means of communication is the most preferable to clarify the interpretation of a requirement?

A. E-mail

B. Face-to-face

C. Instant messaging

D. Telephone

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

In a Scrum project, when would a requirement get added to the Product backlog?

A. When it is developed, but cannot yet be released.

B. When the team works on it for a particular release.

C. When the customer requests a new requirement.

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

Under what circumstances would a team use Affinity Estimation Technique instead of Planning Poker?

A. If more details are needed during Sprint Planning

B. If there is a large number of stories to estimate

C. If there is a small number of stories to estimate

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

Which statement describes Release Planning?

A. After looking at all the stories in the backlog, the team estimates their effort in detail.

B. The team meets with the customer to negotiate the scope, cost and time of the release.

C. The team and the Product Owner agree on an initial plan for the delivery of features.

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

How does Agile bring predictability to the Planning process?

A. By allowing the customers to review the progress often.

B. By assigning most of the responsibility to the Product Owner.

C. By making the team self-organized and self-planning.

D. By providing early visibility into the team\’s progress.

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

Near the end of a Sprint, the team realizes that they will not be able to complete the stories they had committed to.

What is the best course of action for the team?

A. Add resources and team members to meet the goals of the current Sprint.

B. Ask the Product Owner to decide which stories can be delayed until the next Sprint.

C. Decide on a new definition of \’done\’ for the Sprint Backlog Items.

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

What is an “escaped defect”?

A. A defect that was found by the customer.

B. A defect that was planned to be fixed, but not fixed in a Sprint.

C. A defect the Continuous Integration System failed to catch.

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

According to Agile principles, what should be the pace of development?

A. Fast

B. Increasing

C. Sustainable

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

The Product Owner is going on a three-week vacation. The team should be closing the current Sprint and starting a new Sprint at the end of the first week of the Product Owner\’s vacation.

What is the best way to continue the Scrum rituals in this situation?

A. Each Scrum team should ideally have two Product Owners to provide cover.

B. The Product Owner should be requested to delay his vacation by a week.

C. The Scrum Master should take over and cover for the Product Owner.

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

What is a valid IPv6 address?

A. 00:05:85:23:45:67

B. 127.0.0.1

C. 2001:0db8:3000:2215:0000:0000:aaaa:1111

D. 49.0001.0192.0168.1001.00

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

Which simplified IPv6 address is the same as the IP address 2001:0000:1000:0000:0000:cbff:0020:0001/64?

A. 2001::1::cbff:2:0001/64

B. 2001::1000::cbff:20:1/64

C. 2001:0:1000::cbff:20:1/64

D. 2001:0:1:0:0:cbff:2:1/64

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

A user opens a webpage that requires the transmission of packets from the Web server to the client\’s browser. The packets transmitted from the Web server to the client exceed the smallest MTU value on the communications path.

Which two protocol functions allow this type of communication? (Choose two.)

A. packet segmentation

B. serialized checking

C. packet sequencing

D. parallel checking

Correct Answer: AC


Question 4:

In dotted decimal notation, what is the equivalent of 11010101 01000010 01111111 11000010?

A. 213.66.127.194

B. 214.66.128.195

C. 212.64.143.194

D. 213.66.111.194

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

Which statement describes the PFE?

A. The PFE controls the RE by providing Layer 2 and Layer 3 forwarding tables.

B. The PFE implements advanced services such as policing, stateless firewall filtering, and class of service.

C. The PFE sends traffic to the RE for systematic packet forwarding.

D. The PFE receives hardware and environmental status messages from the RE.

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

Which two design goals describe the Junos OS design? (Choose two.)

A. clean separation of security and routing policies

B. clean separation of control and forwarding planes

C. modularization of multiple software processes

D. a single hardware platform for all software applications

Correct Answer: BC


Question 7:

Which two Junos platforms provide stateful firewall functionality? (Choose two.)

A. MX Series

B. EX Series

C. SRX Series

D. QFX Series

Correct Answer: AC


Question 8:

Which statement describes transit traffic?

A. Traffic addressed to the chassis that requires some form of special handling by the RE before it can be forwarded out an egress port.

B. Traffic that enters an ingress port, is compared against the forwarding table, and is forwarded out an egress port.

C. Any traffic that requires the generation of an ICMP message.

D. Traffic that requires some form of special attention and does not pass through the device.

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

When using keyboard shortcuts, which keystroke combination allows users to erase a single word to the left of the cursor?

A. Ctrl a

B. Ctrl e

C. Ctrl u

D. Ctrl w

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

Which two statements are true about the configure exclusive command? (Choose two.)

A. It allows users to retain all uncommitted changes when exiting exclusive configuration mode.

B. It allows multiple users to edit private copies of the configuration concurrently.

C. It causes the loss of all uncommitted changes when exiting exclusive configuration mode.

D. It excludes other users from editing the configuration.

Correct Answer: CD


Question 11:

Which command returns a list of commands in which a given keyword is used throughout the Junos hierarchies?

A. help topic

B. help reference

C. help apropos

D. help tip

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

Which information would you find using the CLI help function? (Choose two.)

A. message of the day

B. tip of the day

C. explanation for specific system log error messages

D. explanation for specific traceoptions log messages

Correct Answer: BC


Question 13:

Which command gracefully shuts down the Junos OS?

A. request system reboot

B. request system logout

C. request system halt

D. restart gracefully

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

Which command would you use to view interface usage details in real time?

A. show interfaces terse

B. show interfaces extensive

C. monitor interface traffic

D. monitor traffic interface

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

Which command will silently drop a matching packet?

A. set routing-options static route 10.1.1.1/32 no-retain

B. set routing-options static route 10.1.1.1/32 discard

C. set routing-options static route 10.1.1.1/32 reject

D. set routing-options static route 10.1.1.1/32 passive

Correct Answer: B


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Question 1:

A host on the Internet initiates traffic to the Static NAT IP of your Web server behind the Security Gateway. With the default settings in place for NAT, the initiating packet will translate the _________.

A. destination on server side

B. source on server side

C. source on client side

D. destination on client side

Correct Answer: D


Question 2:

In SmartDashboard, Translate destination on client side is checked in Global Properties. When Network Address Translation is used:

A. It is not necessary to add a static route to the Gateway\’s routing table.

B. It is necessary to add a static route to the Gateway\’s routing table.

C. The Security Gateway\’s ARP file must be modified.

D. VLAN tagging cannot be defined for any hosts protected by the Gateway.

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

After filtering a fw monitor trace by port and IP, a packet is displayed three times; in the i, I, and o inspection points, but not in the O inspection point. Which is the likely source of the issue?

A. The packet has been sent out through a VPN tunnel unencrypted.

B. An IPSO ACL has blocked the packet\’s outbound passage.

C. A SmartDefense module has blocked the packet.

D. It is due to NAT.

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

Your internal network is configured to be 10.1.1.0/24. This network is behind your perimeter R80 Gateway, which connects to your ISP provider. How do you configure the Gateway to allow this network to go out to the Internet?

A. Use Hide NAT for network 10.1.1.0/24 behind the external IP address of your perimeter Gateway.

B. Use Hide NAT for network 10.1.1.0/24 behind the internal interface of your perimeter Gateway.

C. Use automatic Static NAT for network 10.1.1.0/24.

D. Do nothing, as long as 10.1.1.0 network has the correct default Gateway.

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

You are a Security Administrator who has installed Security Gateway R80 on your network. You need to allow a specific IP address range for a partner site to access your intranet Web server. To limit the partner\’s access for HTTP and FTP

only, you did the following:

1) Created manual Static NAT rules for the Web server.

2) Cleared the following settings in the Global Properties > Network Address Translation screen:

-Allow bi-directional NAT

Translate destination on client side Do the above settings limit the partner\’s access?

A.

Yes. This will ensure that traffic only matches the specific rule configured for this traffic, and that the Gateway translates the traffic after accepting the packet.

B.

No. The first setting is not applicable. The second setting will reduce performance.

C.

Yes. Both of these settings are only applicable to automatic NAT rules.

D.

No. The first setting is only applicable to automatic NAT rules. The second setting will force translation by the kernel on the interface nearest to the client.

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

You enable Automatic Static NAT on an internal host node object with a private IP address of 10.10.10.5, which is NATed into 216.216.216.5. (You use the default settings in Global Properties / NAT.) When you run fw monitor on the R80 Security Gateway and then start a new HTTP connection from host 10.10.10.5 to browse the Internet, at what point in the monitor output will you observe the HTTP SYN-ACK packet translated from 216.216.216.5 back into 10.10.10.5?

A. o=outbound kernel, before the virtual machine

B. I=inbound kernel, after the virtual machine

C. O=outbound kernel, after the virtual machine

D. i=inbound kernel, before the virtual machine

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

You have configured Automatic Static NAT on an internal host-node object. You clear the box Translate destination on client site from Global Properties > NAT. Assuming all other NAT settings in Global Properties are selected, what else must be configured so that a host on the Internet can initiate an inbound connection to this host?

A. No extra configuration is needed.

B. A proxy ARP entry, to ensure packets destined for the public IP address will reach the Security Gateway\’s external interface.

C. The NAT IP address must be added to the external Gateway interface anti-spoofing group.

D. A static route, to ensure packets destined for the public NAT IP address will reach the Gateway\’s internal interface.

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

You are responsible for the configuration of MegaCorp\’s Check Point Firewall. You need to allow two NAT rules to match a connection. Is it possible? Give the BEST answer.

A. No, it is not possible to have more than one NAT rule matching a connection. When the firewall receives a packet belonging to a connection, it compares it against the first rule in the Rule Base, then the second rule, and so on. When it finds a rule that matches, it stops checking and applies that rule.

B. Yes, it is possible to have two NAT rules which match a connection, but only in using Manual NAT (bidirectional NAT).

C. Yes, there are always as many active NAT rules as there are connections.

D. Yes, it is possible to have two NAT rules which match a connection, but only when using Automatic NAT (bidirectional NAT).

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

You have created a Rule Base for firewall, websydney. Now you are going to create a new policy package with security and address translation rules for a second Gateway.

What is TRUE about the new package\’s NAT rules?

A. Rules 1, 2, 3 will appear in the new package.

B. Only rule 1 will appear in the new package.

C. NAT rules will be empty in the new package.

D. Rules 4 and 5 will appear in the new package.

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

Your customer, Mr. Smith needs access to other networks and should be able to use all services. Session authentication is not suitable. You select Client Authentication with HTTP. The standard authentication port for client HTTP authentication (Port 900) is already in use. You want to use Port 9001 but are having connectivity problems. Why are you having problems?

A. The configuration file $FWDIR/conf/fwauthd.conf is incorrect.

B. The Security Policy is not correct.

C. You can\’t use any port other than the standard port 900 for Client Authentication via HTTP.

D. The service FW_clntauth_http configuration is incorrect.

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

Charles requests a Website while using a computer not in the net_singapore network. What is TRUE about his location restriction?

A. Source setting in Source column always takes precedence.

B. Source setting in User Properties always takes precedence.

C. As location restrictions add up, he would be allowed from net_singapore and net_sydney.

D. It depends on how the User Auth object is configured; whether User Properties or Source Restriction takes precedence.

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

In the Rule Base displayed, user authentication in Rule 4 is configured as fully automatic. Eric is a member of the LDAP group, MSD_Group.

What happens when Eric tries to connect to a server on the Internet?

A. None of these things will happen.

B. Eric will be authenticated and get access to the requested server.

C. Eric will be blocked because LDAP is not allowed in the Rule Base.

D. Eric will be dropped by the Stealth Rule.

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

As a Security Administrator, you must refresh the Client Authentication authorization time-out every time a new user connection is authorized. How do you do this? Enable the Refreshable Timeout setting:

A. in the user object\’s Authentication screen.

B. in the Gateway object\’s Authentication screen.

C. in the Limit tab of the Client Authentication Action Properties screen.

D. in the Global Properties Authentication screen.

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

The technical-support department has a requirement to access an intranet server. When configuring a User Authentication rule to achieve this, which of the following should you remember?

A. You can only use the rule for Telnet, FTP, SMTP, and rlogin services.

B. The Security Gateway first checks if there is any rule that does not require authentication for this type of connection before invoking the Authentication Security Server.

C. Once a user is first authenticated, the user will not be prompted for authentication again until logging out.

D. You can limit the authentication attempts in the User Properties\’ Authentication tab.

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

Which Security Gateway R80 configuration setting forces the Client Authentication authorization time-out to refresh, each time a new user is authenticated? The:

A. Time properties, adjusted on the user objects for each user, in the Client Authentication rule Source.

B. IPS > Application Intelligence > Client Authentication > Refresh User Timeout option enabled.

C. Refreshable Timeout setting, in Client Authentication Action Properties > Limits.

D. Global Properties > Authentication parameters, adjusted to allow for Regular Client Refreshment.

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

Tom has been tasked to install Check Point R80 in a distributed deployment. Before Tom installs the systems this way, how many machines will he need if he does NOT include a SmartConsole machine in his calculations?

A. One machine, but it needs to be installed using SecurePlatform for compatibility purposes

B. One machine

C. Two machines

D. Three machines

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

In order to test ClusterXL failovers which command would you use on one of the ClusterXL nodes to initiate a failover?

A. clusterXL_admin down -p

B. cluster XL_admin up -p

C. cphaprob -d TEST -s ok register

D. cphaprob -d TEST -s problem unregister

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/ CP_R76_ClusterXL_AdminGuide/7298.htm#o97358


Question 3:

Which of the following is NOT a valid “fwaccel” parameter?

A. stat

B. stats

C. templates

D. packets

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal? eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=andsolutionid=sk41397


Question 4:

Which of the following is not one of the relational database domains that stores the management configuration?

A. User Domain

B. System Domain

C. Global Domain

D. Audit Domain

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

What file extension should be used with fw monitor to allow the output file to be imported and read in Wireshark?

A. .cap

B. .exe

C. .tgz

D. .pcap

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

How often will a gateway with Performance Pack running by default automatically review and distribute interface affinity between cores?

A. Every 60 seconds

B. Interface affinity is determined at gateway build time and does not change

C. Every 5 minutes

D. Every 10 seconds

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/ CP_R76_PerformanceTuning_WebAdmin/6731.htm


Question 7:

Which of the following features is supported in Check Point\’s implementation of IPv6?

A. Security Servers

B. QoS

C. ClusterXL High Availability

D. SAM

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal? eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=andsolutionid=sk39374


Question 8:

You verified that Performance Pack is disabled and need to distribute the affinity interfaces. What command would you run to use static affinity to balance the interfaces between the SND cores?

A. cpmq set

B. sim affinity -s

C. fw ctl affinity -a -l -v

D. fw ctl affinity -s

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

What must be done for the “fw monitor” command to capture packets through the firewall kernel?

A. SecureXL must be disabled

B. ClusterXL must be temporarily disabled

C. Firewall policy must be re-installed

D. The output file must be transferred to a machine with WireShark

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal? eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=andsolutionid=sk30583


Question 10:

Consider a Check Point Security Gateway under high load. What mechanism can be used to confirm that important traffic such as control connections are not dropped?

A. fw debug fgd50 on OPSEC_DEBUG_LEVEL=3

B. fw ctl multik prioq

C. fgate –d load

D. fw ctl debug –m fg all

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

What is the default and maximum number of entries in the ARP Cache Table in a Check Point appliance?

A. 1,024 and 4,096

B. 4,096 and 16,384

C. 4,096 and 65,536

D. 1,024 and 16,384

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Gaia_WebAdmin/73181.htm


Question 12:

Which kernel debug flag should you use to troubleshoot NAT connections?

A. fw ctl debug xlate xltrc nat table

B. fw ctl debug xltrc xlate nat conn

C. fw ctl debug xlate xltrc nat conn drop

D. fw ctl debug fwx_alloc nat conn drop

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

You are working with multiple Security Gateways enforcing an extensive number of rules. To simplify security administration, which action would you choose?

A. Eliminate all possible contradictory rules such as the Stealth or Cleanup rules

B. Create a separate Security Policy package for each remote Security Gateway

C. Create network objects that restrict all applicable rules to only certain networks

D. Run separate SmartConsole instances to login and configure each Security Gateway directly

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

Which type of SecureXL templates is enabled by default on Security Gateways?

A. Accept

B. Drop

C. NAT

D. VPN

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

Which one of following commands should you run to display HTTPS packet content together with kernel debug?

A. fw ctl get int https_inspection_show_decrypted_data_in_debug=1 fw ctl get int ssl_inspection_extra_debug=1

B. fw set int https_inspection_get_encrypted_data_in_debug 1 fw set int https_inspection_show_debug 1

C. fw ctl set int https_inspection_show_decrypted_data_in_debug 1 fw ctl set int ssl_inspection_extra_debug 1

D. fw ctl set int http_inspection_display_encrypted_data_in_debug=1 fw ctl set int http_inspection_extra_debug=1

Correct Answer: C