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Question 1:

SIMULATION

RHCE Test Configuration Instructions

Information for the two systems you will use in test is the following:

system1.group3.example.com: is one of the main sever. system2.group3.example.com: mainly used as a client.

Password for both of the two systems is atenorth

System\’s IP is provided by DHCP, you can regard it as normal, or you can reset to Static IP in accordance with the following requirements:

system1.group3.example.com: 172.24.3.5

system2.group3.example.com: 172.24.3.10

The subnet mask is 255.255.255.0

Your system is a member of DNS domain group3.example.com. All systems in DNS domain group3.example.com are all in subnet 172.24.3.0/255.255.255.0, the same all systems in this subnet are also in group3.example.com, unless

specialized, all network services required to be configured can be accessed by systems of domain group3.

host.group3.example.com provides a centralized authentication service domain

GROUP3.EXAMPLE.COM, both system1 and system2 have already been pre-configured to be the client for this domain, this domain provides the following user account:

Firewall is enabled by default, you can turn it off when deemed appropriate, other settings about firewall may be in separate requirements.

Your system will be restarted before scoring, so please ensure that all modifications and service configurations you made still can be operated after the restart without manual intervention, virtual machine instances of all examinations must be able to enter the correct multi-user level after restart without manual assistance, it will be scored zero if the test using virtual machine system cannot be restarted or be properly restarted.

Corresponding distribution packages for the testing using operating system Red Hat Enterprise Linux version can be found in the following link: http://server1.group3.example.com/rhel

Part of the requirements include host security, ensure your host security limit does not prevent the request to allow the host and network, although you correctly configured the network service but would have to allow the host or network is blocked, this also does not score.

You will notice that some requirements which clearly do not allow services be accessed by service domain my133t.org, systems of this domain are in subnet 172.25.1.0/252.255.255.0, and systems of these subnets also belong to my 133t.org domain.

PS: Notice that some test questions may depend on other exam questions, for example, you might be asked to perform a series of restrictions on a user, but this user creation may be required in other questions. For convenient identification, each exam question has some radio buttons to help you identify which questions you have already completed or not completed. Certainly, you do not need to care these buttons if you don\’t need them.

Configure Link Aggregation Configure a link between systeml.group3.example.com and system2. group3.example.com as required: This link uses interfaces eth1 and eth2 This link still can work when one interface failes This link uses the following address 172.16.3.20/255.255.255.0 on systeml This link uses the following address 172.16.3.25/255.255.255.0 on system2 This link remains normal after the system is restarted

A. explanation

Correct Answer: A

If you forget how to write the name, you can search examples in /var/share/doc/team-1.9/example_configs/


Question 2:

SIMULATION

RHCE Test Configuration Instructions

Information for the two systems you will use in test is the following:

system1.group3.example.com: is one of the main sever. system2.group3.example.com: mainly used as a client.

Password for both of the two systems is atenorth

System\’s IP is provided by DHCP, you can regard it as normal, or you can reset to Static IP in accordance with the following requirements:

system1.group3.example.com: 172.24.3.5

system2.group3.example.com: 172.24.3.10 The subnet mask is 255.255.255.0 Your system is a member of DNS domain group3.example.com. All systems in DNS domain group3.example.com are all in subnet 172.24.3.0/255.255.255.0, the same all systems in this subnet are also in group3.example.com, unless

specialized, all network services required to be configured can be accessed by systems of domain group3.

host.group3.example.com provides a centralized authentication service domain

GROUP3.EXAMPLE.COM, both system1 and system2 have already been pre-configured to be the client for this domain, this domain provides the following user account:

Firewall is enabled by default, you can turn it off when deemed appropriate, other settings about firewall may be in separate requirements.

Your system will be restarted before scoring, so please ensure that all modifications and service configurations you made still can be operated after the restart without manual intervention, virtual machine instances of all examinations must be

able to enter the correct multi-user level after restart without manual assistance, it will be scored zero if the test using virtual machine system cannot be restarted or be properly restarted.

Corresponding distribution packages for the testing using operating system Red Hat Enterprise Linux version can be found in the following link:

http://server1.group3.example.com/rhel

Part of the requirements include host security, ensure your host security limit does not prevent the request to allow the host and network, although you correctly configured the network service but would have to allow the host or network is

blocked, this also does not score. You will notice that some requirements which clearly do not allow services be accessed by service domain my133t.org, systems of this domain are in subnet 172.25.1.0/252.255.255.0, and systems of these

subnets also belong to my 133t.org domain.

PS: Notice that some test questions may depend on other exam questions, for example, you might be asked to perform a series of restrictions on a user, but this user creation may be required in other questions. For convenient identification,

each exam question has some radio buttons to help you identify which questions you have already completed or not completed. Certainly, you do not need to care these buttons if you don\’t need them.

Configure the Local Mail Service

Configure the mail service on system1 and system2, as required:

1.

These systems do not accept external sending mails

2.

Any mails sent locally are automatically routed to rhgls.domain11.example.com

3.

Mails sent from these systems will be displayed from rhgls.domain11.example.com

4.

You can send mail to local user `arthur\’ to test your configuration system rhgls.domain11.example.com

5.

You have already configured this user\’s mail to the following URL rhgls.domain11.example.com/received_mail/11

A. explanation

Correct Answer: A

Open rhgls.domain11.example.com/received_mail/11 in a browser


Question 3:

SIMULATION

RHCE Test Configuration Instructions

Information for the two systems you will use in test is the following:

system1.group3.example.com: is one of the main sever. system2.group3.example.com: mainly used as a client.

Password for both of the two systems is atenorth

System\’s IP is provided by DHCP, you can regard it as normal, or you can reset to Static IP in accordance with the following requirements:

system1.group3.example.com: 172.24.3.5

system2.group3.example.com: 172.24.3.10 The subnet mask is 255.255.255.0 Your system is a member of DNS domain group3.example.com. All systems in DNS domain group3.example.com are all in subnet 172.24.3.0/255.255.255.0, the same all systems in this subnet are also in group3.example.com, unless

specialized, all network services required to be configured can be accessed by systems of domain group3.

host.group3.example.com provides a centralized authentication service domain

GROUP3.EXAMPLE.COM, both system1 and system2 have already been pre-configured to be the client for this domain, this domain provides the following user account:

Firewall is enabled by default, you can turn it off when deemed appropriate, other settings about firewall may be in separate requirements.

Your system will be restarted before scoring, so please ensure that all modifications and service configurations you made still can be operated after the restart without manual intervention, virtual machine instances of all examinations must be able to enter the correct multi-user level after restart without manual assistance, it will be scored zero if the test using virtual machine system cannot be restarted or be properly restarted.

Corresponding distribution packages for the testing using operating system Red Hat Enterprise Linux version can be found in the following link: http://server1.group3.example.com/rhel

Part of the requirements include host security, ensure your host security limit does not prevent the request to allow the host and network, although you correctly configured the network service but would have to allow the host or network is blocked, this also does not score.

You will notice that some requirements which clearly do not allow services be accessed by service domain my133t.org, systems of this domain are in subnet 172.25.1.0/252.255.255.0, and systems of these subnets also belong to my 133t.org domain.

PS: Notice that some test questions may depend on other exam questions, for example, you might be asked to perform a series of restrictions on a user, but this user creation may be required in other questions. For convenient identification, each exam question has some radio buttons to help you identify which questions you have already completed or not completed. Certainly, you do not need to care these buttons if you don\’t need them.

Implement/configure a Web Service.

Configure a site http://systeml. domain11.example.com/ on the system1, then execute the following steps:

(1)

Download file from http://rhgls.domain11.example.com/materials/station.html and rename this files index.html, don\’t modify the file contents; (2) Copy the file index.html to your web server\’s DocumentRoot directory

(3)

Clients from domain group3.example.com can access to this web service

(4)

Clients from domain my133t.org deny access to this web service

A.

explanation

Correct Answer: A

systemctl restart firewalld


Question 4:

SIMULATION

RHCE Test Configuration Instructions

Information for the two systems you will use in test is the following:

system1.group3.example.com: is one of the main sever. system2.group3.example.com: mainly used as a client.

Password for both of the two systems is atenorth

System\’s IP is provided by DHCP, you can regard it as normal, or you can reset to Static IP in accordance with the following requirements:

system1.group3.example.com: 172.24.3.5

system2.group3.example.com: 172.24.3.10

The subnet mask is 255.255.255.0

Your system is a member of DNS domain group3.example.com. All systems in DNS domain group3.example.com are all in subnet 172.24.3.0/255.255.255.0, the same all systems in this subnet are also in group3.example.com, unless

specialized, all network services required to be configured can be accessed by systems of domain group3.

host.group3.example.com provides a centralized authentication service domain

GROUP3.EXAMPLE.COM, both system1 and system2 have already been pre-configured to be the client for this domain, this domain provides the following user account:

Firewall is enabled by default, you can turn it off when deemed appropriate, other settings about firewall may be in separate requirements.

Your system will be restarted before scoring, so please ensure that all modifications and service configurations you made still can be operated after the restart without manual intervention, virtual machine instances of all examinations must be able to enter the correct multi-user level after restart without manual assistance, it will be scored zero if the test using virtual machine system cannot be restarted or be properly restarted.

Corresponding distribution packages for the testing using operating system Red Hat Enterprise Linux version can be found in the following link: http://server1.group3.example.com/rhel

Part of the requirements include host security, ensure your host security limit does not prevent the request to allow the host and network, although you correctly configured the network service but would have to allow the host or network is blocked, this also does not score.

You will notice that some requirements which clearly do not allow services be accessed by service domain my133t.org, systems of this domain are in subnet 172.25.1.0/252.255.255.0, and systems of these subnets also belong to my 133t.org domain.

PS: Notice that some test questions may depend on other exam questions, for example, you might be asked to perform a series of restrictions on a user, but this user creation may be required in other questions. For convenient identification, each exam question has some radio buttons to help you identify which questions you have already completed or not completed. Certainly, you do not need to care these buttons if you don\’t need them.

Configure the Access to the Web Content Create a directory private under the directory DocumentRoot in the web server on the system1, requirements are the following: Download a file copy to this directory from http://rhgls.domain11.example.com/materials/private.html and rename it as index.html. Don\’t make any changes to this file content Any users from the system1 can browse the content of the private, but cannot access this directory content through other systems

A. explanation

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

SIMULATION

Via nfs service share the /common directory in your system, just doing ONE share in example.com domain.

A. explanation

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

SIMULATION

According to the following requirements, deploy your ftp login rule:

Users in example.com domain must be able to login to your ftp server as an anonymous user.

But users outside the example.com domain are unable to login to your server

A. explanation

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

SIMULATION

Configure ssh to allow user harry to access, reject the domain t3gg.com (172.25.0.0/16) to access.

A. explanation

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

SIMULATION

Configure the kernel parameters: rhelblq=1, and it is requested that your kernel parameters can be verified through /proc/cmdline.

A. explanation

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

SIMULATION

There are two different networks 192.168.0.0/24 and 192.168.1.0/24. Where 192.168.0.254 and 192.168.1.254 IP Address are assigned on Server. Verify your network settings by pinging 192.168.1.0/24 Network\’s Host.

A. explanation

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

SIMULATION

You are working as an Administrator. There is a common data shared (/data) from 192.168.0.254 to all users in your local LAN. When user\’s system start, shared data should automatically mount on /common directory.

A. explanation

Correct Answer: A

To automatically mount at boot time, we use the /etc/fstab file. Because /etc/rc.d/rc.sysinit file reads and mounts all file system specified in /etc/fstab. To mount Network Sharing Files also use the /etc/fstab but filesystem is nfs.


Question 11:

SIMULATION

Create the group named sysusers.

A. explanation

Correct Answer: A

1. groupadd sysusers groupadd command is used to create the group and all group information is stored in /etc/group file.


Question 12:

SIMULATION

Add a cron schedule to take full backup of /home on every day at 5:30 pm to /dev/st0 device.

A. explanation

Correct Answer: A

1.

vi /var/schedule 30 17 * * * /sbin/dump -0u /dev/st0 /dev/hda7

2.

crontab /var/schedule

3.

service crond restart

We can add the cron schedule either by specifying the scripts path on /etc/crontab file or by creating on text file on crontab pattern. cron helps to schedule on recurring events. Pattern of cron is: Minute Hour Day of Month Month Day of Week

Commands

0-59 0-23 1-31 1-12 0-7 where 0 and 7 mean Sunday.

Note * means every. To execute the command on every two minutes */2.


Question 13:

SIMULATION

There were two systems:

system1, main system on which most of the configuration take place

system2, some configuration here

SSH configuration.

Configure SSH access on your virtual hosts as follows.

Clients within my22ilt.org should NOT have access to ssh on your systems

A. explanation

Correct Answer: A

Save and Exit (:wq) Then run this:

Optional:


Question 14:

SIMULATION

There were two systems: system1, main system on which most of the configuration take place system2, some configuration here

Customize the User Environment

Create a command called qstat on both serverX and desktop.

It should be able to execute the following command (ps –eo pid, tid, class, rtprio, ni, pri, psr, pcpu, stat, wchan:14, comm).

The command should be executable by all users.

A. explanation

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

SIMULATION

There were two systems: system1, main system on which most of the configuration take place system2, some configuration here SMTP Configuration. Configure the SMTP mail service on serverX and desktopX which relay the mail only from local system through station.network0.example.com, all outgoing mail have their sender domain as example.com. Ensure that mail should not store locally. Verify the mail server is working by sending mail to a natasha user. Check the mail on both serverX and desktopX with the below URL http://station.network0.example.com/system1 http://station.network0.example.com/system2

A. explanation

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

Which simplified IPv6 address is the same as the IP address 2001:0000:1000:0000:0000:cbff:0020:0001/64?

A. 2001::1::cbff:2:0001/64

B. 2001::1000::cbff:20:1/64

C. 2001:0:1000::cbff:20:1/64

D. 2001:0:1:0:0:cbff:2:1/64

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

Which layer in the OSI model is responsible for translating frames into bits?

A. Application Layer

B. Presentation Layer

C. Data Link Layer

D. Physical Layer

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

Which two statements are true about optical networks? (Choose two.)

A. SONET and SDH both use time-division multiplexing.

B. An optical transport network system uses time-division multiplexing.

C. SONET and SDH both use wavelength-division multiplexing.

D. An optical transport network system uses wavelength-division multiplexing.

Correct Answer: AD


Question 4:

Which statement describes exception traffic?

A. Exception traffic must be sent to the PFE for processing.

B. Exception traffic enters one ingress port and is sent out multiple egress ports.

C. Exception traffic is rate-limited on the internal link to prevent DoS attacks.

D. Exception traffic is processed after forwarding traffic when congestion exists.

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

What are two benefits of the modular design of the Junos OS? (Choose two.)

A. Each module uses application-specific integrated circuits (ASICs).

B. Each module runs in its own protected memory space.

C. Each module can be individually restarted.

D. Each module is supported across all Junos platforms.

Correct Answer: BC


Question 6:

What is the central processing component of the forwarding plane?

A. PFE

B. RE

C. Junos OS

D. forwarding table

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

Which command is used to load the rescue configuration?

A. load override rescue

B. rollback rescue

C. load replace rescue-configuration

D. rollback 49

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

Which two external authentication servers are supported for administrative access to a Junos device? (Choose two.)

A. RADIUS

B. LDAP

C. ACE

D. TACACS

Correct Answer: AD


Question 9:

Which command displays only the interfaces that are operationally and administratively up?

A. show interfaces terse | match up

B. show interfaces terse | match down

C. show interfaces terse | except up

D. show interfaces terse | except down

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

To which directory does the Junos OS write traceoptions files?

A. /var/tmp/

B. /var/

C. /var/log/

D. /var/home//

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

Which command would you use to view interface usage details in real time?

A. show interfaces terse

B. show interfaces extensive

C. monitor interface traffic

D. monitor traffic interface

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

What are two default routing policies on Junos devices? (Choose two.)

A. The BGP import policy accepts all BGP routes.

B. The BGP export policy rejects all active BGP routes.

C. The OSPF import policy accepts all OSPF routes.

D. The OSPF export policy accepts all active OSPF routes.

Correct Answer: AC


Question 13:

What is the purpose of unicast reverse path forwarding?

A. to validate packet receipt on interfaces where the traffic should be received

B. to forward packets out the interfaces where the traffic should be received

C. to forward packets out the interfaces where the traffic should be sent

D. to validate packet receipt on interfaces where the traffic should be sent

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

Which command will apply a policy to redistribute static routes into OSPF?

A. set protocols ospf import static-routes

B. set protocols ospf export static-routes

C. set routing-options static defaults readvertise

D. set routing-options static route 0.0.0.0/0 readvertise

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

Which command do you use to navigate to [edit interfaces]?

A. cd interfaces

B. dir edit interfaces

C. edit interfaces

D. interfaces

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

On the following picture an administrator configures Identity Awareness:

After clicking “Next” the above configuration is supported by:

A. Kerberos SSO which will be working for Active Directory integration

B. Based on Active Directory integration which allows the Security Gateway to correlate Active Directory users and machines to IP addresses in a method that is completely transparent to the user.

C. Obligatory usage of Captive Portal.

D. The ports 443 or 80 what will be used by Browser-Based and configured Authentication.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80BC_IdentityAwareness/ html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80/CP_R80BC_IdentityAwareness/62050


Question 2:

Which of the completed statements is NOT true? The WebUI can be used to manage user accounts and:

A. assign privileges to users.

B. edit the home directory of the user.

C. add users to your Gaia system.

D. assign user rights to their home directory in the Security Management Server.

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Gaia_WebAdmin/73101.htm


Question 3:

In the Check Point Security Management Architecture, which component(s) can store logs?

A. SmartConsole

B. Security Management Server and Security Gateway

C. Security Management Server

D. SmartConsole and Security Management Server

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

By default, which port does the WebUI listen on?

A. 80

B. 4434

C. 443

D. 8080

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80_Gaia_IUG/html_frameset.htm? topic=documents/R80/CP_R80_Gaia_IUG/132120


Question 5:

Which VPN routing option uses VPN routing for every connection a satellite gateway handles?

A. To satellites through center only

B. To center only

C. To center and to other satellites through center

D. To center, or through the center to other satellites, to Internet and other VPN targets

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal? eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=andsolutionid=sk31021


Question 6:

Kofi, the administrator of the ALPHA Corp network wishes to change the default Gaia WebUI Portal port number currently set on the default HTTPS port. Which CLISH commands are required to be able to change this TCP port?

A. set web ssl-port

B. set Gaia-portal port

C. set Gaia-portal https-port

D. set web https-port

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal? eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=andsolutionid=sk83482


Question 7:

Joey want to configure NTP on R80 Security Management Server. He decided to do this via WebUI. What is the correct address to access the Web UI for Gaia platform via browser?

A. https://

B. http://:443

C. https://:10000

D. https://:4434

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/CP_R77_Gaia_AdminWebAdminGuide/ html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R77/CP_R77_Gaia_AdminWebAdminGuide/75930


Question 8:

The “Hit count” feature allows tracking the number of connections that each rule matches. Will the Hit

count feature work independently from logging and Track the hits if the Track option is set to “None”?

A. No, it will work independently. Hit Count will be shown only for rules Track option set as Log or alert.

B. Yes it will work independently as long as “analyze all rules” tick box is enabled on the Security Gateway.

C. No, it will not work independently because hit count requires all rules to be logged.

D. Yes it will work independently because when you enable Hit Count, the SMS collects the data from supported Security Gateways.

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/html_frameset.htm? topic=documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/126197


Question 9:

Fill in the blank: Permanent VPN tunnels can be set on all tunnels in the community, on all tunnels for specific gateways, or ______ .

A. On all satellite gateway to satellite gateway tunnels

B. On specific tunnels for specific gateways

C. On specific tunnels in the community

D. On specific satellite gateway to central gateway tunnels

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/CP_R77_VPN_AdminGuide/html_frameset.htm? topic=documents/R77/CP_R77_VPN_AdminGuide/14018


Question 10:

True or False: In a Distributed Environment, a Central License can be installed via CLI on a Security Gateway.

A. True, CLI is the prefer method for Licensing

B. False, Central License are handled via Security Management Server

C. False, Central Licenses are installed via Gaia on Security Gateways

D. True, Central License can be installed with CPLIC command on a Security Gateway

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

In which VPN community is a satellite VPN gateway not allowed to create a VPN tunnel with another satellite VPN gateway?

A. Pentagon

B. Combined

C. Meshed

D. Star

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Firewall_WebAdmin/92709.htm


Question 12:

When a packet arrives at the gateway, the gateway checks it against the rules in the hop Policy Layer, sequentially from top to bottom, and enforces the first rule that matches a packet. Which of the following statements about the order of rule enforcement is true?

A. If the Action is Accept, the gateway allows the packet to pass through the gateway.

B. If the Action is Drop, the gateway continues to check rules in the next Policy Layer down.

C. If the Action is Accept, the gateway continues to check rules in the next Policy Layer down.

D. If the Action is Drop, the gateway applies the Implicit Clean-up Rule for that Policy Layer.

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

Which of the following is an identity acquisition method that allows a Security Gateway to identify Active Directory users and computers?

A. UserCheck

B. Active Directory Query

C. Account Unit Query

D. User Directory Query

Correct Answer: B

Reference : https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/ CP_R76_IdentityAwareness_AdminGuide/62402.htm


Question 14:

Why would an administrator see the message below?

A. A new Policy Package created on both the Management and Gateway will be deleted and must be backed up first before proceeding.

B. A new Policy Package created on the Management is going to be installed to the existing Gateway.

C. A new Policy Package created on the Gateway is going to be installed on the existing Management.

D. A new Policy Package created on the Gateway and transferred to the Management will be overwritten by the Policy Package currently on the Gateway but can be restored from a periodic backup on the Gateway.

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

Which command is used to add users to or from existing roles?

A. Add rba user roles

B. Add rba user

C. Add user roles

D. Add user

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Gaia_WebAdmin/73101.htm


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Question 1:

DRAG DROP

Match the log file name with the CyberArk Component that generates the log.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 2:

DRAG DROP

In version 10.7 the correct order of installation for components changed. Make the necessary corrections to the list below to show the new installation order.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 3:

The vault does not support Role Based Access Control

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

The Remote Desktop Services role must be property licensed by Microsoft.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

One can create exceptions to the Master Policy based on_________.

A. Safes

B. Platforms

C. Policies

D. Accounts

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

Which of the following statements are NOT true when enabling PSM recording for a target Windows server? Choose all that apply

A. The PSM software must be installed on the target server

B. PSM must be enabled in the Master Policy {either directly, or through exception).

C. PSMConnect must be added as a local user on the target server

D. RDP must be enabled on the target server

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

It is possible to disable the Show and Copy buttons without removing the Retrieve permission on a safe.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

During LDAP/S integration you should specify the Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) of the Domain Controller

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

When on-boarding accounts using Accounts Feed. Which of the following is true”?

A. You must specify an existing Safe where the account will be stored when it is on-boarded to the Vault.

B. You can specify the name of a new safe that will be created where the account will be stored when it is on-boarded to the Vault.

C. You can specify the name of a new Platform that will be created and associated with the account.

D. Any account that is on-boarded can be automatically reconciled regardless of the platform it is

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

The Vault Internal safe contains the configuration for an LDAP integration

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

PSM captures a record of each command that was issues in SQL Plus.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

What is the purpose of the Allowed Safes parameter in a CPM policy? Select all that apply.

A. To improve performance by reducing CPU workload.

B. To prevent accidental use of a policy in the wrong safe.

C. To allow users to access only the passwords they should be able to access.

D. To enforce Least Privilege in CyberArk.

Correct Answer: CD


Question 13:

The Vault Internal safe contains all of the configuration for the vault.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

What are the operating system prerequisites for installing CPM? Select all that apply.

A. NET 3.51 Framework Feature

B. Web Services Role

C. Remote Desktop Services Role

D. Windows 2008 R2 or higher

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

The vault provides a tamper-proof audit trail.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

SIMULATION

Ann, a local librarian, has had a previously used wireless access point donated to her. She has instructed you to configure this new wireless access point for her public library. Ann plans to allow anyone to connect to the access point without having to ask her for configuration information. Additionally, Ann knows that her neighbors have wireless network and wants to ensure that her network has the least likelihood of interfering with the other networks. Ann has provided you with the following information.

Wireless Name: Library New Router Password: Secure$1

INSTRUCTIONS

Instructions: Select the Public Library in the diagram to configure the wireless network. Once the wireless network tabs are configured, select the save button. When you have completed the simulation, please, select the Done button to

submit.

Configure Ann\’s wireless library network using the network adapter window.

If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.

A. Check the answer in explanation.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:


Question 2:

SIMULATION

You need to configure your mobile device to send and receive electronic messages from your company.

You must use the company\’s WLAN as all e-mail services are on default non-secure ports.

The company\’s WLAN is broadcasting across the company for easier access. Both incoming and outgoing servers require login credentials.

Use the following parameters:

1.

Email address [email protected] com

2.

Password [email protected]

3.

Pop techies com Port 110 Security. None

4.

IMAP techies com Port 993 Security SSL

5.

smtp.techies.com Port 465 Security: TLS

6.

Company SSID Techies

7.

Security WPA2

8.

Passphrase [email protected]

9.

SSID is not broadcasted

Instructions: You are not authorized to use the Company\’s WLAN The outgoing server does not require login credentials. When you have completed the simulation, please select the done button to submit your answer.

Configure Mobile Device

Instruction: Configure the settings to send and receive electronic messages from the company.

Update the mobile device\’s parameters to fit the criteria.

If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.

A. Check the answer in explanation.

Correct Answer: A

Since we are instructed to not use the company\’s WLAN we only need to worry about the email settings and ignore the WiFi and Networks tab. On the MAIL tab enter information as shown below:

That should be all that is needed.

Tips: The mobile has save button in top right corner, your instructions might cover it so watch out for that, first is IMAP then SMTP.


Question 3:

SIMULATION

Laura, a customer, has instructed you to configure her home office wireless access point.

She plans to use the wireless network for finances and has requested that the network be setup with the highest encryption possible.

Additionally, Laura knows that her neighbors have wireless networks and wants to ensure that her network is not being interfered with by the other networks.

She requests that the default settings be changed to the following.

Wireless Name: HomeWiFi Shared Key: CompTIA Router Password: Secure$1

Finally, Laura wants to ensure that only her laptop and SmartPhone can connect to the network.

Laptop: IP Address 192.168.1.100

Hardware Address: 00:0A:BF:03:C4:54

SmartPhone: IP Address 192.168.1.101

Hardware Address: 09:2C:D0:22:3F:11

INSTRUCTIONS

Configure Laura\’s wireless network using the network adapter window.

If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.

A. See the

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

The network administrator has changed the IP address of ComputerA from 192.168.1.20 to 10.10.10.20 and now jane, a user, is unable to connect to file shares on ComputerA from ComputerB using the computer name.

INSTRUCTIONS

Using the available tools, resolve the connectivity issues.

After troubleshooting the issue, verify a successful connection.

If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation? please click the Reset All button.

A. See the

Correct Answer: A

We need to flush the DNS to have the new IP address assigned to the same computer name. Use the ipconfig/flushdns command.


Question 5:

DRAG DROP

Drag each mobile technology to the description of its use. Some answers will not be used.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 6:

DRAG DROP (1)

A customer, Ann, has requested two custom PCs, one to be used for gaming and the other to be used as a virtualization workstation for her business.

The gaming PC should support the latest games and gaming peripherals.

The virtualization workstation should be able to host several production virtual machines as part of Ann\’s home business.

INSTRUCTIONS

Use the tabs at the top to switch between the PCs.

Objects should be placed on the appropriate slot/display areas and can only be used once.

All slot/display areas should be filled.

If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 7:

DRAG DROP (2)

A customer, Ann, has requested two custom PCs, one to be used for gaming and the other to be used as a virtualization workstation for her business.

The gaming PC should support the latest games and gaming peripherals.

The virtualization workstation should be able to host several production virtual machines as part of Ann\’s home business.

INSTRUCTIONS

Use the tabs at the top to switch between the PCs.

Objects should be placed on the appropriate slot/display areas and can only be used once.

All slot/display areas should be filled.

If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 8:

SIMULATION

You need to configure your mobile device to send and receive electronic messages from your company.

You must use the company\’s WLAN as all e-mail services are on default non-secure ports.

The company\’s WLAN is broadcasting across the company for easier access.

Users must authenticate to the server with the same credentials in order to send and receive email.

Authentication should be enforced in the settings of the mobile device using the following parameters:

1. Username: [email protected]

2. Password: [email protected]$$w0rd

3. Outgoing server: mail.techies.com

4. Incoming server: pop3.techies.com

5. Company SSID: Techies

6. Security Key: CA:FE:33:71:00

INSTRUCTIONS:

Update the mobile device\’s parameters to fit the criteria and support the strongest encryption available。

If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.

Correct Answer: See below.

For the WiFi setup, do the following:

1.

Enable 802.11 b/g Radio

2.

Choose the Techies SSID, enter the CA:FE:33:71:00 security Key.

3.

Choose the “Same as Incoming Server” option below.

For Email setup, choose the following:


Question 9:

SIMULATION

The network administrator has changed the IP address of ComputerA from 192.168.1.20 to 10.10.10.20 and now Jane, a user, is unable to connect to file shares on ComputerA from ComputerB using the computer name.

INSTRUCTIONS

Using the available tools, resolve the connectivity issues. After troubleshooting the issue, verify a successful connection. If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation? please click the Reset All button.

A. Check the answer in explanation.

Correct Answer: A

Need to flush the DNS cache on Computer B:

Type in ipconfig/flushdns


Question 10:

SIMULATION

Ann, a CEO, has purchased a new consumer-class tablet for personal use, but she is unable to connect it to the company\’s wireless network. All the corporate laptops are connecting without issue. She has asked you to assist with getting the

device online.

INSTRUCTIONS

Review the network diagrams and device configurations to determine the cause of the problem and resolve any discovered issues.

If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.

A. Check the answer in explanation.

Correct Answer: A

Ann needs to connect to the BYOD SSID, using 2.4GHZ. The selected security method chose should be WPA PSK, and the password should be set to TotallySecret.


Question 11:

SIMULATION

Ann, a CEO, has purchased a new consumer-class tablet for personal use, but she is unable to connect it to the company\’s wireless network. All the corporate laptops are connecting without issue. She has asked you to assist with getting the device online.

INSTRUCTIONS

Review the network diagrams and device configurations to determine the cause of the problem and resolve any discovered issues.

If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.

A. Check the answer in explanation.

Correct Answer: A

Megan needs to connect to the CORP SSID, using 2.4GHZ. The selected security method chose should be WPA2, and the password should be set to Corpsecure1.


Question 12:

SIMULATION

A small ISP has hired a new technician Joe, the new technician, is being trained to configure customers* home networks The trailing instructor gives me technician a starter kit with cables, cable ends, and other network equipment and asks

mm to build a working network.

The computer should be connected to have internet connectivity and the phone should be connected to have a dial tone.

INSTRUCTIONS

Use the appropriate cables. cable ends, tools and equipment to configure the network ana connect an components accordingly

There are 3 steps and the simulation starts on step 1.

A. Check the answer in explanation.

Correct Answer: A

Answer of both steps below.

A picture containing text, screenshot, indoor Description automatically generated

Diagram Description automatically generated with medium confidence


Question 13:

Joe, a user, sets up an IMAP connection on his smartphone to connect to webmail. Joe is able to view email, but he receives an error message when trying to send a message. When viewing the mail client\’s configuration, Joe sees a valid SMTP server and port. Which of the following should Joe check NEXT to resolve the issue?

A. Configure the email account as a POP3 connection

B. Ensure the SSL/TLS option is being used

C. Check that the account password is still valid

D. Make sure the smartphone is not in airplane mode

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

A technician is troubleshooting network connectivity issues after a new wireless router was installed in an office. Users who connect to the new router are unable to access LAN resources. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue?

A. There are conflicting DHCP servers on the network

B. There are conflicting ARP records

C. There are conflicting gateways on the network

D. There are conflicting IP protocols

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

A user connects a laptop to a docking station but is unable to see an image on the external monitor. The user tests the docking station USB ports, and they are working fine. Which of the following should be done NEXT?

A. Check for firmware updates

B. Configure extended display mode

C. Replace the external monitor

D. Adjust the laptop\’s BIOS settings

Correct Answer: B


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Question 1:

Your customer has implemented Oracle Project Portfolio Management Cloud recently and they have hired new employees for their Professions Services business. These employees are set up in Oracle Human Capital Management Cloud, but the Project Administrators are unable to add them as resources in the Planning Resource Breakdown Structure.

What are three conditions for new employees to show up in the list?

A. All new employees created as persons must have an active project role.

B. All new employees created as persons must have an active supervisor.

C. All new employees created as persons must have an active assignment.

D. All new employees created as persons must be assigned to a department.

E. Current date is before the effective date of the resource, and you did not enable the “Include people with future-dated effective start dates” option during the search.

Correct Answer: ACE


Question 2:

As you go through the first-quarter close for your customer, you notice that the burden amounts calculated do not seem to be right. Based on the calculations, you notice that the amounts calculated are not considering the burden schedule override at a task level, which was done during the second month of the quarter.

Identify the reason for this problem.

A. You can enable automatic reprocessing of expenditure items processed before the burden schedule change.

B. Only new expenditure items charged to the task use the new burden schedule; expenditure items processed earlier cannot be reprocessed.

C. All expenditure items charged to the task use the new burden schedule.

D. Only new expenditure items charged to the task use the new burden schedule; expenditure items processed earlier can be manually marked for reprocessing.

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cloud/r13_update17b/projectcs_gs/OAPJC/OAPJC1071490.htm#OAPJC1071482


Question 3:

Your client uses Resource Breakdown Structures (RBS) and Resource Mapping to associate amounts to resources. After making some changes to the resources at project level, forecasts are regenerated. After reviewing the cost amounts associated with the resources, you suspect that the cost association does not match your client\’s expectations.

Identify two valid rules based on which cost association works.

A. If the sum of precedence numbers is the same for more than one branch, precedence is given to the branch with the lowest number at the lowest level.

B. If there is only one level in RBS to which the transaction maps, the cost amounts are mapped to that level.

C. If a transaction maps to more than one level, Oracle PPM Cloud sums the precedence numbers for all resource types in the branch, and gives precedence to the resource element in the branch with the highest sum.

D. If one branch contains a user-defined resource type, precedence is given to the branch that contains a user -defined resource type.

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E37583_01/doc.1116/e22598/F458900AN13D82.htm


Question 4:

Which three tools are available for accessing REST APIs?

A. Programming Language

B. Web Browser

C. cURL

D. Oracle Transactional Business Intelligence

Correct Answer: BCD


Question 5:

Using Oracle Time and Labor, your client wants to put in a validation process that allows only a xertain number of maximum hours an employee can charge in a day, and a minimum number of hours he or she can report in a week. What feature would you use to meet this requirement?

A. project time validation rules

B. time audit rules

C. time calculation rules

D. time entry rules

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

In a Project Draft Invoice preview, quantity (hours) and unit price (bill rate) are shown as fields on the invoice. Quantity and unit price are then used to calculate the line total, then the total price of the invoice. After the invoice is transferred or created in Receivables, the invoice detail has a quantity of 1, and a unit price equal to the line total. The detailed Unit Price/Quantity does not come through on the Receivables invoice.

Which statement is correct about details in the Receivables invoice?

A. The project sends the invoice header, invoice line description, and the invoice distributions to Receivables.

B. The project sends only the invoice header to Receivables, not the invoice line description and distributions.

C. The project sends the invoice line description and the invoice distributions to Receivables. But not the invoice header.

D. The project sends only the invoice header and invoice line description to Receivables, not the invoice distributions.

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

While creating a new project template, you notice that a default Asset Cost Allocation method is being automatically associated. Identify the source setup from which the default value is being inherited.

A. project organization

B. project type

C. project unit

D. project classification

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cloud/farel10/projectcs_gs/OAPJC/OAPJC1071495.htm#OAPJC220111 (asset cost allocation methods: explained)


Question 8:

Which three changes can you make by using the page composer tool?

A. Add custom attributes to existing objects

B. Reorder Fields

C. Add validation rules for the custom attributes

D. Show or Hide a Field

E. Change a field label

Correct Answer: BDE

Reference: https://www.oracle.com/webfolder/technetwork/tutorials/tutorial/cloud/r13/wn/r13-2018-ppm-wn.htm


Question 9:

You have projects and tasks defined with transaction controls, which does not allow certain types of charges to the project. Your business needs to create invoices in AP with this project every period and hence would like to make the process easier by creating a distribution set. As you create the distribution set, you notice that these distribution set lines are not validated against the project transaction controls and you are allowed to save it without any validation errors.

Identify the reason why the project transaction controls are not applied.

A. There is no expenditure item date information available on the distribution set line.

B. There is no expenditure organization information available on the distribution set line.

C. The account code combination is not available on the distribution set line.

D. There is no expenditure type information available on the distribution set line.

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

Which four notification templates are predefined?

A. Forgot Username Template

B. New Account Template

C. Password Reset Template

D. Forgot Password Template

E. New Account Manager Template

Correct Answer: ACDE


Question 11:

Which three are part of using the Rapid Implementation for Project Financial Management Applications macro-enabled Microsoft Excel spreadsheet to enter setup data?

A. Upload setup data.

B. Generate CSV files.

C. Import Projects.

D. File Import and Export.

E. Prepare setup data.

Correct Answer: ABE

References: https://docs.oracle.com/applications/farel12/projectop_gs/OAPFM/OAPFM2264569.htm#OAPFM2159921


Question 12:

You want to export your project plan to Oracle Project Financial Management Cloud after initial scheduling is complete in Microsoft Projects. Identify three conditions that must be met for exporting milestone tasks.

A. only one labor resource assignment with 0 effort

B. lowest-level tasks set up with zero duration

C. lowest-level tasks set up with non-zero duration

D. percent work complete values of 0 or 100 percent

E. only one labor resource assignment with 100 effort

Correct Answer: ABD

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cloud/latest/projectcs_gs/OAPEX/OAPEX1082602.htm#OAPEX2161139


Question 13:

Your company uses an accounting calendar with periods that are identical to calendar months. A contract resource has been identified to work for six months on an accounting close cycle project. The resource is planned to start with 10 days left in the first period and to end 20 days into the last period. For the remaining periods, the resource must be loaded on all working days of the month. You are required to distribute the budget, forecast, and planning amounts across periods based on the task duration.

Which predefined spread curve must be used to meet this requirement?

A. Even

B. Daily Spread Basis

C. Bell Curve

D. Bell Loaded

E. S-Curve

Correct Answer: E


Question 14:

While opening an organization tree on the Manage Organization Trees page, you notice that the hierarchy status is displayed as Inactive. Identify the two reasons for the organization tree to be in Inactive status.

A. You used Create Tree Version in the action menu.

B. You opened the hierarchy by clicking the name.

C. You used Create Tree in the action menu.

D. You selected the Edit icon for opening the hierarchy.

E. You used View Tree Version in the action menu.

Correct Answer: AD


Question 15:

Which three are valid password complexity criteria while setting up password policies?

A. Very Complex: At least 8 characters, 1 uppercase, 1 number, and 2 special characters

B. Very Complex: At least 6 characters, 1 uppercase, 1 number, and 1 special character

C. Very Complex: At least 8 characters, 1 uppercase, 1 number, and 1 special character

D. Simple: At least 8 characters and 1 number

E. Complex: At least 8 characters, 1 uppercase, and 1 number

Correct Answer: CDE


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Question 1:

View the exhibits.

Based on the page layout, what is wrong with the search page and how should you fix it?

A. The Add actions should not be available; check the component definition foe the Item Label

B. Include History and Correction should be displayed; check the Internet tab of the Component Properties dialog box

C. The Add action should not be available; check the Internet tab of the Component Properties dialog box

D. Include History and Correction should be displayed; check the Use tab of the Component Properties dialog box

E. The Add action should not be available; check the Use tab of the Component Properties dialog box

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E57990_01/pt853pbh2/eng/pt/tpst/task_WorkingwithSearchPages-027de6.html#topofpage


Question 2:

A colleague needs to update a custom cascading style sheet (CSS) style for your team\’s fluid application. She has the style definition shown in this exhibit open in Application Designer, but isn\’t sure if she has opened the correct style definition and asks for your advice.

How do you know she does not have a fluid CSS style open?

A. The fluid user interface does not use the Arial or the sans-serif fonts. The fluid user interface uses only the Lucida Grande and Helvetica Neue fonts

B. In the fluid user interface, font color is not set on the style definition. The current branding theme is what determines the font color for the fluid user interface display

C. The fluid user interface does not use absolute font sizes. Only relative font sizes apply to the dynamic nature of the fluid user interface

D. The fluid user interface uses only free form style sheets, and this style sheet is a fixed from style sheet

E. Fluid style sheets all have _FL appended to the style name

Correct Answer: D

Reference: http://technoeureka.blogspot.com/2018/03/applying-css-styling-to-field-values-on.html


Question 3:

Review the following definition:

Select the correct PeopleCode statement to declare an object of the ErrorRow class.

A. Component OCP:OCPUtilities: ErrorRow andNewObject

B. Component andNewObject extends ErrorRow;

C. Row OCP:OCPUtilities:ErrorRow andNewObject;

D. andNewObject = create OCP:OCPUtilities:ErrorRow();

E. andNewObject = Get (OCP:OCPUtilities:ErrorRow);

F. Component OCP.OCPUtilities.ErrorRow andNewObject

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

Consider the following three scenarios and six tools or techniques. For each scenario, identify the most appropriate tool or technique for updating the portal registry.

A. S1-T2, S2-T1, S3-T3

B. S1-T2, S2-T6, S3-T4

C. S1-T5, S2-T4, S3-T3

D. S1-T5, S2-T3, S3-T4

E. S1-T5, S2-T1, S3-T4

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

Review the definition of the Calculate user-defined function.

Then, review the invocation of this Calculate function in a FieldChange program:

Which two corrections are required to allow these PeopleCode programs to be saved as syntactically correct programs that produce valid results? (Choose two.)

A. In the FieldChange program, move line 3 to become line 1

B. In the function definition, delete the in and out modifiers on line 1

C. Delete line 3 from the function definition. In the FieldChange program, add the following as line 5: andincr = 0;

D. Replace line 4 in the FieldChange program with the following:

Correct Answer: BD


Question 6:

You click a value on the search page and get a SQL error as shown in this exhibit.

What should you do to troubleshoot this issue and fix it?

A. Check the page definition, make the necessary changes, and save the page

B. Check the Use tab of the Component Properties dialog box, verify the search record, make the necessary changes, and save the component

C. Check if the record definition was modified by another developer and perform an alter table

D. Check the record key structure, make the necessary changes, save the record, and then perform a create indexes

E. Check the record key, alternate search key, and list box settings of the search record, and save the record

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

Assume that you open a PeopleSoft application record definition using Application Designer. Which two of the following statements are false? (Choose two.)

A. In Application Designer, with a record definition open, you can insert additional fields

B. Any changes made to the record definition in Application Designer are stored in a PeopleTools table as application metadata

C. In Application Designer, with a record definition open, you can view transactional application data, such as inventory items provided by a vendor

D. In Application Designer, with a record definition open, you can add or update transactional application data, such as adding a new inventory item

E. In Application Designer, with a record definition open, you can modify the key structure of the record definition

F. In Application Designer, with a record definition open, you can set a record field to be a required field for which an end user must specify a value when adding a new row of transactional data

Correct Answer: BF


Question 8:

View the exhibits. Based on this page layout and page order, select two true statements about this page definition.

A. The TS_EMP_REVIEW page is saved without error

B. The TS_EMP_REVIEW page contains a parent/child design error

C. The TS_EMP_REVIEW page is saved with a related field error

D. The TS_EMP_REVIEW page is saved with a duplicate record field warning

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

You are testing the Course Session Details page. You click the Lookup button for the Instructor field and select a name. When you tab off the field, a message is displayed.

What caused this issue and how do you fix it?

A. The menu definition associated with this page has the wrong search record; examine the menu definition

B. The page field definition has the wrong prompt table assigned; examine the page definition

C. The component definition associated with this page has the wrong search record; examine the component definition

D. The record field definition has the wrong prompt table assigned; examine the record definition

E. You selected an incorrect value from the prompt; select a different value

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

You have these items selected in the Suppress on Form Factor group box on the Fluid tab for a page control.

How will the system treat this control?

A. PeopleTools will compress the size of this control to reduce the amount of data sent over the wireless network for smartphones and tablets

B. The control will display only a laptop and desktop computers

C. The control will display only on smartphones and tablets

D. The control will consume less space on the page when rendered on a smartphone or tablet

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://pe0ples0ft.blogspot.com/2017/09/fluid-ui-working-with-grids.html


Question 11:

While in the office on his desktop computer, a user personalizes his fluid homepage by adding a tile for the My contacts component. The next day at the airport, the user attempts the access the My Contacts component using his smartphone. Unfortunately, he cannot see the My Contacts tile on his field homepage.

Why is the user unable to find the My Contacts tile on his fluid homepage when using his smartphone?

A. The user does not have the Smartphone Access check box enabled in his personalization\’s

B. The smartphone does not have a supported version of its operating system

C. The style, ps_homepage-phone, has not been applied on the Fluid tab of the Component Properties dialog box

D. The Display on Small Form Factor Homepage check box has not been selected on the Fluid tab of the Component Properties dialog box

E. The component does not contain any pages of type Small Form Factor

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

You configure embedded pop-up help for a scroll area header or a grid header by ____.

A. using the Insert menu to insert a Popup help button on the grid header or scroll area header in place of the Navigation bar

B. adding a hyperlink or push button to the header linking to the delivered online help

C. adding a hyperlink or push button to the header linking to your custom online help

D. selecting Message Catalog Popup on the Label tab of the Grid Properties Dialog box or the Scroll Area Properties dialog box

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E41633_01/pt853pbh1/eng/pt/tapd/task_ConfiguringEmbeddedHelpforScrollAreasandGrids-277585.html


Question 13:

When you attempt to drag a subrecord onto a page, the page definition displays an error. What is the reason for this?

A. The Use tab on the Page Properties dialog box does not have the Page Size field set to Auto-size so that the page automatically expands to facilitate all the fields in the subrecord

B. The subrecord definition does not have the Record Type value set to SubRecord

C. The Use tab on the Record Properties dialog box for the subrecord definition does not have the Parent record field set correctly in the Record Relationship settings

D. The Page Type Field is not set to be Subpage on the Use tab of the Page Properties dialog box

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

Match each valid PeopleCode variable scope in the first column with its corresponding duration in the second column and its description in the third column.

A. 1Cd, 3Cc, 5Ee

B. 1Ed, 3Bc, 4Da

C. 1Cd, 3Ac, 4Da

D. 1Cb, 2Ca, 3Aa

E. 1Cd, 3Bc, 5Ee

F. 1Cd, 3Ac, 4Da

Correct Answer: D


Question 15:

Your client has asked you to update their PeopleCode programs to replace outdated system variables with current system variables. Which system variable replaces %OperatorId?

A. %Session

B. %CurrentUser

C. %UserId

D. %SessionUser

E. %SessionId

F. %SignonUserId

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E41633_01/pt853pbh1/eng/pt/tpcr/task_DeprecatedItemsandPeopleCodeNoLongerSupported-da7e1c.html


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Question 1:

When considering the architecture of a clustered deployment of VMware vRealize Automation, which two components will require the configuration of an external load balancer? (Choose two.)

A. vRealize Suite Lifecycle Manager

B. vRealize Automation

C. VMware Identity Manager

D. PostgreSQL Database

E. vCenter Server

Correct Answer: BC


Question 2:

An administrator is tasked with creating cloud zones for an existing Amazon Web Services (AWS) cloud account.

Which type of compute resource can be added to the cloud zone?

A. Cluster

B. Elastic Cloud Compute (EC2) Instances

C. Availability Zones

D. Virtual Private Cloud (VPC)

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-Cloud-Assembly/services/Using-and-Managing/GUIDDDAA67C6-EC17-41BD-BF15-98EEF9B0A418.html


Question 3:

An administrator configures cloud accounts for vSphere, Amazon Web Services and Google Cloud Platform. Each public cloud account has a single region configured, with a single cloud zone associated with each. Company policy states that all development workloads should be deployed to the public cloud. The administrator wants to ensure that when creating blueprints for this project an appropriate constraint tag is specified to meet the placement policy and that App-Dev users are allowed to select whether to deploy the machine to production or development. The tagging strategy states that development environments should be tagged with “dev” and production environments should be tagged “prod”.

Which two actions should the administrator take to ensure the objective is met? (Choose two.)

A. Add a capability tag to each public cloud zone, using env:prod as the key/value pair.

B. Add a capability tag to each vSphere cloud zone, using env:prod as the key/value pair.

C. Add a capability tag to each public cloud zone, using env:dev as the key/value pair.

D. Add a capability tag to each vSphere cloud zone, using env:dev as the key/value pair.

E. Add a capability tag to each cloud account, using env:prod as the key/value pair.

Correct Answer: BC

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-Cloud-Assembly/services/Using-and-Managing/GUID9DB7610D-9179-419B-9605-539F625A81D1.html


Question 4:

What are two purposes of projects in vRealize Automation? (Choose two.)

A. Add cloud accounts

B. Map compute resources to users and groups

C. Organize image mappings

D. Create tenants

E. Configure custom naming

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://cloudadvisors.net/2019/12/13/vrealize-automation-8-working-with-projects-firstconsiderations/


Question 5:

Which vRealize Suite product helps an administrator understand the monetary impact of individual deployments and manage costs in vRealize Automation?

A. vRealize Log Insight

B. vRealize Operations

C. vRealize Network Insight

D. vRealize Suite Lifecycle Manager

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.vmware.com/content/dam/digitalmarketing/vmware/en/pdf/products/vrealize-suite/ vmware-vrealize-suite-lifecycle-manager-solution-overview.pdf


Question 6:

An administrator is configuring a cloud account for Microsoft Azure.

Which piece of information must the administrator provide in order to successfully add this cloud account?

A. Username

B. IP address

C. Password

D. Subscription ID

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/vRealize-Automation/8.0/Using-and-Managing-Cloud-Assembly/ GUID-F7656A16-6E21-4D5E-8F3A-AF38D365555F.html


Question 7:

An administrator is building a blueprint to allow users to select a cloud type.

The cloud type options are:

Amazon Web Services vSphere

Where will the administrator configure capability tags so that the proper compute is selected at the time of deployment?

A. Projects

B. Cloud Accounts

C. Cloud Zones

D. Network Profile

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/vRealize-Automation/8.1/Using-and-Managing-Cloud-Assembly/ GUID-8E630DEA-4732-45FC-9655-6933D55818C1.html


Question 8:

An administrator needs to create a new project for the development team. Which vRealize Automation resource can be added to a project?

A. Cloud Zones

B. Cloud Accounts

C. Flavor Mappings

D. Image Mappings

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/vRealize-Automation/8.2/Using-and-Managing-Cloud-Assembly/ GUID-55F871CF-87BF-4BE5-8429-8DFB63286E22.html


Question 9:

Which option should an administrator configure to implement storage profiles in blueprints?

A. Cloud zones

B. Projects

C. Tags D. Flavor mappings

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

Which two public cloud accounts are supported for vRealize Automation? (Choose two.)

A. Microsoft Azure

B. Oracle Cloud

C. Amazon Web Services

D. IBM Cloud

E. Alibaba Cloud

Correct Answer: AC

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/vRealize-Automation/8.0/Using-and-Managing-Cloud-Assembly/ GUID-6667AA70-169A-4E03-A377-B2B4533910D4.html


Question 11:

Which vRealize Automation service is a development- and process-automation platform that supports extensibility and Anything-as-a-Service (XaaS) features in vRealize Automation?

A. Cloud Assembly

B. Code Stream

C. vRealize Orchestrator

D. Service Broker

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://thecloudxpert.net/2019/12/12/vra8-lets-talk-about-xaas/


Question 12:

An administrator is tasked with integrating vRealize Operations and vRealize Automation.

Which two pieces of information will the administrator require to perform this integration? (Choose two.)

A. The license key for vRealize Operations

B. The vRealize Orchestrator details through which vRealize Operations will be configured

C. The IP/FQDN of the vRealize Operations server

D. The vRealize Operations login username and password

E. The SSL certificate of the vRealize Operations server

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/vRealize-Operations-Manager/8.1/com.vmware.vcom.core.doc/ GUID-25F0450A-86CE-4E47-84D0-82C01DF47D27.html


Question 13:

Which kubectl command should be run to find the Kubernetes authentication method?

A. kubectl describe pod

B. kubectl describe secrets

C. kubectl -n prelude describe pod

D. kubectl explain

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

Which command should an administrator run to check the status of vRealize Automation services?

A. kubectl cluster-info -n prelude

B. vracli status

C. kubectl -n prelude get pods

D. vracli org-oauth-apps

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-Validated-Design/6.0/sddc-operational-verification/GUID040957F2-F4F0-46CE-857B-A0BAF03355EB.html


Question 15:

What is the main difference between vRealize Orchestrator non-persistent logs and persistent logs?

A. Log Insight forwarding configuration

B. Storing of events in the database

C. Time Synchronization of logs

D. Logging level configuration

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/vRealize-Orchestrator/7.6/com.vmware.vrealize.orchestratorinstall-config.doc/GUID-4E29EBE7-181D-4B17-982E-7599F9164F1B.html


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Question 1:

What is/are the number of navigation level(s) allowed for an item of type Quick link?

A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. 4

Correct Answer: D


Question 2:

What happens when a related portal section is deleted from the Related Portal Section library?

A. It requires changes in the Security Manager.

B. It permanently deletes the section from the system.

C. It removes the section as an option for users of the particular portal.

D. It stays on the user\’s portal until the next time the system is restarted.

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

When creating a new object migration package, what is a valid Create Mode option?

A. By Date

B. By Modified By

C. By Object Type

D. By Object Name

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

When creating an editable query, how many forms can be included in the query?

B. 1

C. 2

D. unlimited

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

Once the form with sections to be moved is open in Form Builder, which two statements are true?

A. Moving a section will remove its section actions.

B. Moving a section will change its security permissions.

C. Moving the sections impacts the tab order of the fields.

D. The form must be in a Revision in Progress state to move the sections.

E. In order to access the section actions, the tab label must be selected in the navigation section.

Correct Answer: DE


Question 6:

A change has been made to a business object and form state family and they have been published. The change is not being seen. What should be done?

A. Reboot the server.

B. Reboot the workstation.

C. Log out of the system and log back in.

D. Flush the state data cache in the Administration Console.

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

Which statement is true regarding a synchronous workflow that uses temporary data and is called using a call workflow task in an asynchronous workflow?

A. A synchronous workflow cannot be called from an asynchronous workflow.

B. Since the synchronous workflow was called from an asynchronous workflow, the workflow will use permanent data.

C. There is no user interacting with the data therefore there is no temporary data, and in this case the workflow will fail.

D. A synchronous workflow cannot be called using a call workflow task; it can only be called from a state transition sub action.

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

Which tool is used to create a module?

A. Form Builder

B. Data Modeler

C. Portal Builder

D. Report Manager

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

How are changes made to a workflow saved in the workflow editor?

A. Changes are auto saved.

B. Changes are saved when the workflow is closed.

C. Changes are saved when the workflow is published.

D. Changes are saved when the Apply option is selected in each task property.

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

When a retired workflow is added to an Object Migration package, what is the expected result when importing it to another environment?

A. It will be skipped on import.

B. It will be removed on upload.

C. It will be imported in a retired state.

D. It will be imported into whatever state the workflow exists in the target environment.

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

Based on the Application Building for the IBM TRIRIGA Application Platform 3 guide, which name is valid for a new custom date field?

A. cstStartDateTX

B. cstStartDateDT

C. cstStartDateBL

D. cstStartDateDA

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

Which statement is true regarding a Query task?

A. It can only access queries created by the system user.

B. It can only access queries created by the user that created the workflow.

C. It can only access queries listed under the My Reports tab of the report manager.

D. It can only access queries listed under System Reports or the Community tab of the report manager.

Correct Answer: D


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Question 1:

If a VRRP Master router is rebooted, what is the default behavior once it comes back online?

A. An election occurs to determine which router will have the Master role

B. Original VRRP Master will take back control of the Master role

C. Original VRRP Backup will retain the Master role

D. VRRP Master role is determined by the router with the lowest MAC address

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

An administrator just finished configuring a Dell EMC N-Series switch. After rebooting the switch, the administrator notices that all the configuration settings just entered are gone.

Which command did the administrator fail to enter?

A. Copy running-config startup-config

B. Copy running-config backup-config

C. Copy startup-config backup-config

D. Copy startup-config running-config

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

A user\’s host with an IP address of 172.16.1.22/24 is attempting to FTP a file from the server with IP address 10.1.1.99; however, they are unable to connect.

Which access-list is preventing this traffic?

A. # ip access-list ACL1 # deny ip any host 10.1.1.99

B. # ip access-list ACL2 # permit ip 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.255 any

C. # ip access-list ACL3 # deny ip any 172.16.2.0 0.0.0.255

D. # ip access-list ACL4 # permit ip host 172.16.1.22 host 10.1.1.99

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

When setting up VoIP, you decide that you want to use LLDP. LLDP is enabled by default and LLDP Transmit Management Information and Notification modes are enabled.

What additional steps need to be performed?

A. Enable ISDP and enable LLDP-MED confignotification

B. Disable ISDP and enable LLDP-MED confignotification

C. Enable ISDP and disable LLDP-MED confignotification

D. Disable ISDP and disable LLDP-MED confignotification

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

After setting up the VoIP configuration, a network administrator issues the following commands with the results shown:

console# show voice vlan Administrative Mode………………………Enable

console# show voice vlan it gi 1/0/2

Interface………………………………….Gi1/0/2

Voice VLAN Interface Mode……………Enabled

Voice VLAN ID………………………….10

Voice VLAN COS Overwrite……………False

Voice VLAN DSCP Value……………….46

Voice VLAN Port Status…………………Enabled

Voice VLAN Authentication…………….Disabled

Based on this information, what is the Layer 3 QoS value?

A. 5

B. 10

C. 46

D. Gi1/0/2

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

What is the IP protocol number, in decimal, assigned by IANA for VRRP?

A. 25

B. 112

C. 443

D. 1443

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

What is the recommended maximum number of routers, per area, when using OSPF?

A. 50

B. 100

C. 200 D. 255

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

Refer to the Exhibit.

If Client B sends a packet to Client A, what is the highest level of the network hierarchy that the packet will transverse?

A. Distribution

B. Network

C. Access

D. Core

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

What is the interaction between CDP, ISDP, and LLDP when communicating configuration information from a Dell EMC Campus networking switch to a Cisco VoIP phone?

A. N-Series switches can be configured to use LLDP or CDP to communicate configuration information with Cisco devices

B. N-Series switches can be configured to use only CDP to communicate configuration information with Cisco devices

C. N-Series switches can be configured to use ISDP or CDP to communicate configuration information with Cisco devices

D. N-Series switches can be configured to use ISDP or LLDP to communicate configuration information with Cisco devices

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

Switch-1(config)# interface tengigabitethernet 1/0/1 Switch-1(config)# switchport mode access Switch-1(config)# switchport trunk allowed vlan 10, 20 Switch-1(config)# Switch-1(config)# interface tengigabitethernet 1/0/3 Switch-1(config)# switchport mode access Switch-1(config)# switchport access vlan 10

Switch-2(config)# interface tengigabitethernet 1/0/2 Switch-2(config)# switchport mode trunk Switch-2(config)# switchport trunk allowed vlan 10, 20 Switch-2(config)# Switch-2(config)# interface tengigabitethernet 1/0/6 Switch-2(config)# switchport mode access Switch-2(config)# switchport access vlan 20

A network administrator is troubleshooting why Host 1 cannot communicate with Host 2.

Based on the switch output shown in the exhibit, what is the reason for the communication issue?

A. Port Te1/0/1 on Switch-1 is configured incorrectly

B. Port Te1/0/2 on Switch-2 is configured incorrectly

C. Port Te1/0/3 for Host 1 is configured incorrectly on Switch-1

D. Port Te1/0/6 for Host 2 is configured incorrectly on Switch-2

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

What are key features of the Dell EMC N4064 or N4064F switches?

A. Up to 640 Gbps switch fabric capacity and hot swap expansion module support for dual QSFP (8 x 10GbE)

B. Up to 1.0 Tbps switch fabric capacity and up to 48-line rate 10GbE ports per switch

C. Up to 1.2 Tbps switch fabric capacity and up to 64-line rate 10GbE ports per switch

D. Up to 48-line rate 10GbE ports per switch and hot swap expansion module support for dual QSFP (8 x 10GbE)

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://i.dell.com/sites/csdocuments/Shared-Content_data-Sheets_Documents/en/aa/Dell_Networking_N4000_Series_SpecSheet.pdf


Question 12:

A user\’s workstation has an IP phone connected to a Dell EMC N-Series switch.

What is the recommended number of VLANs that should be configured on the switch port?

A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. 3

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

The exhibit represents a topology with all Dell EMC N4000 Series switches with RSTP enabled. In addition, the switches are using the default configuration on all ports and protocols. Which port number will be blocked by spanning tree?

A. Te 1/0/3

B. Te 1/0/4

C. Te 1/0/5

D. Te 1/0/6

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator has created an ACL to block broadcast traffic to their server on port Gi1/0/1. Why is the ACL not functioning as desired?

A. ACL is not applied in the correct direction

B. ACLs do not support broadcast traffic

C. Destination address mask is incorrect

D. Destination IP address is incorrect

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

A user\’s workstation is connected to an IP phone that is connected to a Dell EMC N-Series switch. Which type of traffic is typically tagged or untagged?

A. Data = tagged, Voice = untagged

B. Data = untagged, Voice = untagged

C. Data = tagged, Voice = tagged

D. Data = untagged, Voice = tagged

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.dell.com/support/article/en-us/how12385/how-to-enable-the-voice-vlan-feature-on-dell-emc-networking-n-series-switches?lang=en