CIW v5 Database Design Specialist Free Practice Questions

Consider the following relations shown in the exhibit. Which of the following SQL statements would return the Customers2 relation from the Customers relation?

  • A. SELECT * FROM Customers WHERE Satisfaction_Rate <= 80 OR Satisfaction_Rate >= 90;
  • B. SELECT * FROM Customers WHERE Satisfaction_Rate IN (80 AND 90);
  • C. SELECT * FROM Customers WHERE Satisfaction_Rate >= 80 AND Satisfaction_Rate <= 89;
  • D. SELECT * FROM Customers WHERE Satisfaction_Rate BETWEEN (80, 90);

Answer : C

Your enterprise is creating a relation (shown in the exhibit) that tracks parts and suppliers.
Which situation would occur if new supplier information were entered in the relation before any information about specific parts?

  • A. An update anomaly and an insertion anomaly would occur.
  • B. An insertion anomaly would occur.
  • C. A deletion anomaly would occur.
  • D. A deletion anomaly and an update anomaly would occur.

Answer : B

What is the highest normal form of the relation(s) shown in the exhibit?

  • A. Second normal form
  • B. First normal form
  • C. Boyce-Codd normal form
  • D. Third normal form

Answer : A

To create a view, what are the minimal privileges that a user must have for the relations used to make the view?

  • A. GRANT

Answer : C

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Implementing Cisco Service Provider Mobile Unlicensed Small Cell Solutions Free Practice Questions

Which interface, as defined by the 3GPP standards, is used for policy control between the
Policy and Charging Rules Function and the Policy and Charging Enforcement Function of the Cisco PGW?


Answer : B

When you think about transporting traffic over the backhaul network, consider the overhead that different protocols add to the user traffic.Which two protocols must be considered relative to Cisco Service Provider Wi-Fi backhaul transport overhead? (Choose two.)

  • A. CDP
  • B. IPv6
  • D. PMIPv6

Answer : C,D

Using PMIPv6, when is the IP address for the client assigned?

  • A. before web authentication
  • B. after web authentication
  • C. at the same time as web authentication
  • D. at least 5 minutes after web authentication

Answer : A

Which two statements about mobility groups are true? (Choose two.)

  • A. All controllers in a mobility group must be within the same Layer 2 domain.
  • B. Clients can roam between controllers that are attached to different VLANs, and maintain their IP address.
  • C. Clients can roam between controllers that are attached to the same VLANs, and maintain their IP address.
  • D. Each mobility group is limited to six controllers.

Answer : B,C

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Implementing DevOps Solutions and Practices using Cisco Platforms (DEVOPS) Free Practice Questions

Which step must be taken to enable centralized logging in a Kubernetes environment?

  • A. No steps need to be taken. The master node automatically aggregates logs from all worker nodes and stores them on the specified persistent volume.
  • B. Create a CustomResourceDefinition in each deployment that specifies the IP or names the log collector.
  • C. Deploy a sidecar node that aggregates logs from the entire cluster.
  • D. Create a DaemonSet that deploys a container with a logging agent on every node in the cluster.

Answer : C

A user wants to deploy a new service to a Kubernetes cluster. Which two commands accomplish this goal? (Choose two.)

  • A. Apply
  • B. Install
  • C. Deploy
  • D. Create
  • E. Expose

Answer : AE

A DevOps engineer is supporting a containerized application with multiple components running across the Kubernetes cluster. Metrics from the container (CPU and memory) and application (requests per second and heap size) are being collected by Prometheus and displayed with Grafana. Users report transaction timeout problems with the application, but the metric graphs all look within normal levels.Which type of failure would prevent the engineer from seeing the problem using the captured metrics?

  • A. Grafana has lost connectivity to Prometheus, which causes graphs to display only the cached data.
  • B. CPU and memory metrics from Kubernetes nodes are not accurate due to the way that containers share resources.
  • C. Some containers are crashing regularly and being restarted automatically by Kubernetes.
  • D. The metricbeat agent has crashed and is no longer sending new data to Prometheus, so the metrics are not updating.

Answer : D

Refer to the exhibit. A developer needs to scale the existing pods within the worked nodes. Which object should be edited to achieve this goal?

  • A. ReplicaSet
  • B. PriorityClass
  • C. Deployment
  • D. Pod

Answer : A

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Designing Cisco Enterprise Networks (ENSLD) Free Practice Questions

How do endpoints inside an SD-Access network reach resources outside the fabric?

  • A. a VRF fusion router is used to map resources in one VN to another VN
  • B. Fabric borders use VRFs to map VNs to VRFs
  • C. SD-Access transit links are used to transport encapsulated traffic from one fabric to another
  • D. A fabric edge is used to de-encapsulate VXLAN traffic to normal IP traffic then transported over the outside network

Answer : D

A network engineer must segregate three interconnected campus networks using IS-IS routing. A two-layer hierarchy must be used to support large routing domains and to avoid more specific routes from each campus network being advertised to other campus network routers automatically. Which two actions does the engineer take to accomplish this segregation? (Choose two.)

  • A. Designate two IS-IS routers as BDR routers at the edge of each campus, and configure one BDR for all Level 1 routers and one BDR for all Level 2 routers.
  • B. Designate two IS-IS routers from each campus to act as Level 1/Level 2 backbone routers at the edge of each campus network.
  • C. Assign the same IS-IS NET value for each campus, and configure internal campus routers with Level 1/Level 2 routing.
  • D. Utilize different MTU values for each campus network segment. Level 2 backbone routers must utilize a larger MTU size of 9216.
  • E. Assign a unique IS-IS NET value for each campus, and configure internal campus routers with Level 1 routing.

Answer : BE

A company with multiple service providers wants to speed up BGP convergence time in the event a failure occurs with their primary link. Which approach achieves this goal and does not impact router CPU utilization?

  • A. Utilize BFD and tune the multiplier to 50
  • B. Lower the BGP hello interval
  • C. Decrease the BGP keepalive timer
  • D. Utilize BFD and keep the default BGP timers

Answer : C

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must optimize the traffic flow of the network. Which change provides a more efficient design between the access layer and the distribution layer?

  • A. Add a link between access switch A and access switch B
  • B. Reconfigure the distribution switch A to become the HSRP Active
  • C. Change the link between distribution switch A and distribution switch B to be a routed link
  • D. Create an EtherChannel link between distribution switch A and distribution switch B

Answer : B

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Office 2019 Pro Plus: Download Links for a Windows 10 Based Person’s Computer

Many technical controls can’t wait to buy office 2019 key and experience Microsoft Office 2019 Professional Plus for Windows 10. This is a set of efficient software suites for editing Word documents, creating Excel spreadsheets, creating PPT slides, reading Outlook emails, etc. From the current information, MS Office 2019 is only suitable for computers with Windows 10 operating system installed.

Office Professional Plus 2019 Product Key

Full version of this software contains: Word, Excel, PowerPoint, Outlook, Project, Visio, Access, and Publisher.

Plans and pricing:

Where can I Download Office 2019?

The one-time purchase version of Office 2019 is downloadable for both Windows 10 and latest macOS. The Windows version of Office Professional 2019 also includes Publisher 2019, Access 2019, Project 2019, and Visio 2019.

Method 1:

You can download the img file without registering and logging in. These are not trial versions of the Office 2019, as long as you have a valid product key, you can feel free to activate and use.

  • To download Office 2019 Professional Plus, please click here
  • To download Office 2019 Project, please click here
  • To download Office 2019 Visio, please click here

Method 2:

Many users are more cautious and they think third-party download links may be insecure. For this type of reader, I suggest you log in to Microsoft’s office account and download the installation image file.

  1. Go to this page to download the offline installation package
  2. In this page, click “Install Office” button.
  3. In the Download and install window, select “Other options” option.
  4. Check the “Download an offline installer” button, and choose the language you want. Select “Download“.
  5. When you’re prompted, select “Save File“. The file will begin downloading on your PC.

How to install Office 2019

Installing Office 2019

Office 2019 for Windows 10 are available through Volume Licensing use Click-to-Run technology instead of the traditional Windows Installer technology. This means Microsoft will no longer offer MSI. To deploy volume licensed versions of Office 2019 suites and individual applications (including Visio 2019 and Project 2019) for users, you’ll use the Office Deployment Tool (ODT).

  • Step 1: Remove existing versions of Office before installing Office 2019
  • Step 2: Download the Office Deployment Tool from the here.
  • Step 3: Go to the folder where you extracted the Office Deployment Tool, then Create the configuration.xml (You should change SourcePath to the folder with setup.exe and PIDKEY to your Office 2019 MAK key from volume licensing )
       SourcePath="C:\office extract\files"
      <Product ID="ProPlus2019Volume"  PIDKEY="#####-#####-#####-#####-#####" >
         <Language ID="en-us" />
  <RemoveMSI All="True" />
  <Display Level="Full" AcceptEULA="TRUE" />  
  • Step 4: Open up cmd as admin role, and change directories to the folder with the Office 2019 setup.exe
  • Step 5: Run setup.exe /download configuration.xml
  • Step 6: Run setup.exe /configure configuration.xml
  • Step 7: Download the Office 2019 installation files.

Generic Volume License Key (GVLK ) for Office 2019

By default, volume licensed versions of Office 2019 and Office 2016 are installed with a Generic Volume License Key (GVLK). These license keys can’t be used to activate your personal copy of Office.

Office Professional Plus 2019
Office Standard 2019
Project Professional 2019
Project Standard 2019
Visio Professional 2019
Visio Standard 2019
Access 2019
Excel 2019
Outlook 2019
PowerPoint 2019
Publisher 2019
Skype for Business 2019
Word 2019

Latest 210-451 Dumps | Understanding Cisco Cloud Fundamentals (CLDFND)

Exam overview

The Cisco Cloud certification validates the skill set (networking, security, analytics, and management) of IT staffs on industry-leading Cisco cloud solutions and best practices test.

The Cisco CCNA CLDFND 210-451 exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of Cloud characteristics ( On-demand self-service, Broad network access, Resource pooling, Rapid elasticity, Measured service) and deployment models including Cisco InterCloud; the basics of Cisco Cloud infrastructure i.e.

  • Cloud characteristics
  • Cloud service models (IaaS, SaaS, PaaS)
  • Cloud deployment (public, private, community, hybrid)
  • Cisco Intercloud Solution
  • Cloud Compute (Cisco UCS)
  • Cloud Networking (DC network architectures, infrastructure virtualization)
  • Cloud Storage basics (provisioning, access, concepts, devices, infrastructures)

If you want to pass the 210-451 exam easily, you must master the following key points of the exam. For example, cisco unified computer system, cisco unified fabric, 210-451 cldfnd dumps and Cisco UCS Storage Server, as you prepare for the 210-451 CLDFND exam, the first of two exams required (210-455 CLDADM) for the CCNA Cloud certification.

CCNA Cloud IT certification

Exam Objectives

When you earn a CCNA Cloud certification, you will have the base skills to perform entry-level provisioning and support of Cisco cloud solutions.

  • Exam code: 210-451 CLDFND
  • Affiliate Certification:
    • CCNA Cloud
    • CCNA Data Center
  • Time limit: 90 minutes
  • Type of questions: Single selection, multiple selections
  • Number of questions: 55 – 65 questions
  • Passing score: Approx. 900
  • Available Languages: English
  • Who Should Take this exam:
    • Network administrator
    • Network operations analyst
    • Network technician
    • Data Center admin
    • Data Center technician
    • Cloud architect
    • Cloud engineers
    • Cloud administrators

Latest 210-451 Exam Topics:

The following exam topics are likely to be included in the 210-451 actual test. In addition, other relevant and up-to-date technical topics may also appear in any particular delivery of the exam.

This learning material presents all the test points in a concise way, and if the candidate develops a review plan based on the contents of the 210-451 book, our 210-451 dumps pdf can improve your understanding and promotion of the subjects of the CLDFND exam.

  1. Cloud Characteristics and Models
    • Describe common cloud characteristics
    • Describe Cloud Service Models
  2. Cloud Deployment
    • Describe cloud deployment models
    • Describe the Components of the Cisco Intercloud Solution
  3. Basic Knowledge of Cloud Compute
    • Identify key features of Cisco UCS
    • Describe Server Virtualization
  4. Basic Knowledge of Cloud Networking
    • Describe network architectures for the data center
    • Describe Infrastructure Virtualization
  5. Basic Knowledge of Cloud Storage
    • Describe storage provisioning concepts
    • Describe the difference between all the storage access technologies
    • Describe basic SAN storage concepts
    • Describe basic NAS storage concepts
    • Describe the various Cisco storage network devices
    • Describe various integrated infrastructures

How to pass 210-451 CLDFND exam in 2 weeks?

IT companies or organizations around the world are highly rated for Cisco CCNA Cloud certification. When you are planning to apply for a cloud computing job, the hiring manager prefers to understand both the subject matter and the experience of the 210-451 CLDFND exam. If you succeed in obtaining the CCNA Cloud certification with 210-451 VCE, you will be the best candidate.

Recommended skills:

Geekcert 210-451 CLDFND dumps

A CCNA Cloud Study Guide PDF ebook or paperback is necessary. Geekcert’s newest 210-451 exam dumps covers all the exam questions you can expect to encounter on the 210-451 actual exams and also gives you access to online interactive learning environment, including chapter analog quiz, practice exams answers, explanation of professional terms, and CLDFND dumps as PDF or VCE format.

210-451 CLDFND Online Training

CLDFND 210-451 online preparation can provide IT students with the core knowledge, base skills and main abilities to perform foundational tasks related to Cisco Cloud computing.

What you will learn from this self-paced 210-451 PDF is the characteristics and deployment models of a Cisco Cloud network. This 210-451 cldfnd study guide includes a combination of lectures and lab activities and all the study material that candidates needs to prep & pass the 210-451 CLDFND exam.

Real 210-451 exam questions

Are you looking for latest 210-451 practice test with reference answers for 210-451 CLDFND exam? GK4exam has compiled a database of exam questions from actual tests in order to help students prepare for and pass your 210-451 exam with smooth profit. All free 210-451 study materials PDF from GK4exam are up to date and verified by Cisco Certified Specialists.

CCNA Cloud Complete Study Guide Book

Cisco 210-451 CLDFND study guide ebook provides a solid understanding of the exam topics to pass the CCNA Cloud Fundamentals 210-451 exam. Students will gain base knowledge of fundamental cloud technologies, including cloud computing definitions, cloud service models, and cloud aspects in infrastructure components such as Cloud Deployment, Cloud Workloads, Cloud networking, and Cloud storage.

With thorough coverage, practical instruction, and expert insight, this 210-451 Study Guide book provides an ideal training resource for Exam 210-451 CLDFND and Exam 210-455 CLDADM preparation.

•    Includes an opening list of exam topics
•    Provides valuable hands-on exercises
•    Offers practical real-world examples
•    Distills in-depth perspective from cloud computing experts

The Best adapter :Find the right power adapter for your notebook

What is an AC Adapter?

The AC adapter is used to recharge the battery in a notebook and to provide dependable power for operating the notebook for long periods of time. If an AC adapter fails it will not recharge the battery and it will not provide power to operate the notebook without a battery.

Laptop Power Adapters

Your laptop is indispensable, but have you ever thought about what would happen if you were to lose its power supply or damage the battery?

How to select a AC adapter?

Benefit from the rapid change of electronic products. People enjoy the convenience of electronic products at the same time, there are also a variety of adapters on the market, to our purchase has brought difficulties.

Conforms to several principles

  1.  the voltage is the same or similar. Your computer has a nominal input voltage of 16V, and the following adapter rated output voltage is 20V, a large difference, can not be replaced, may damage the computer.
  2. the plug polarity is the same. You should take a closer look. If the symbols are not the same as those noted on the notebook, absolutely not.
  3. the adapter’s rated output current can not be less than the computer’s rated input current. Your computer marked the maximum input current is 3.36A, then you buy the power adapter when you buy the output current is greater than or equal to 3.36A, the bigger the better, but the larger the output current is the higher the power rating, too big words too wasteful, and very cumbersome, generally slightly larger than on the line.

Choose a good brand

Now many of the online sales are jerry-building unqualified products, normal use should be no problem, once the accident will burn off your laptop, save dozens of pieces but burn thousands of pieces of the notebook is not worth the money, the proposal is well-funded case, you can buy a professional brand.

Distinguish usage

For home use and office use, buy a home, want to use the car, buy a car.

Distinguish voltage, current and connector

Look at the original notebook computer is which brand, the original charger behind the label on how much V, how many a, the connector of the charger is probably round or square, or porous, to do their own mind about a few, just don’t buy wrong, even be fooled. If the original charger is 18.5V 3.5A that is to buy output 18.5V, as for the current higher than 3.5A can be. But if it is 18.5V best not, although can be charged, special circumstances emergency can be recharged, time long will damage to the battery and laptop computer. That is to say, the voltage is accurate and the current can be high.

Different brands of laptop AC adapters are not universal

Interface Unlike most laptop power adapter brands, this means that using other branded power adapters simply cannot be plugged into your laptop for power.

  1. The interface is relatively safe, because at least you will not plug in a current or voltage that does not match the power adapter to power the laptop and cause computer hardware damage.
  2. Different voltages,Different brands of laptop power adapter voltage is not the same, for example: IBM is generally 16v,dell is the 20V,HP is 18.5v,sony is the 19.5V and so on. This shows that even if the power adapter interface is the same, it is not possible to use different brands of laptop power adapter for power supply.
  3. Different currents,Different brands of laptop power adapter current is not the same, for example: IBM is generally
  4. Dell is the 3.34A,HP is 2.7a,sony is the 4.1A and so on.

How much does the adapter cost?

There are a lot of power adapters on the market for laptops, and big brands of power adapters are Lenovo , HP, Asus and now very popular Apple and so on.

Lenovo Notebook ac adapter Price

  • Lenovo IdeaPad 31036097 65W AC Adapter
    Applicable:Lenovo Y650/510/530/550/410/430/450/310/330, U330, g230/430/530/470/430
    Power : 65W


  • Lenovo IdeaPad 31036172 135W AC Adapter
    Applicable:Lenovo IdeaPad Y710 Y730
    Power: 135W

Dell Notebook ac adapter Price

  • Dell 19.5V 4.62A

19.5V 4.62A 90W Ac Adapter
19.5V 4.62A 90W Ac Adapter

Applicable:D620,XPS M1210,M1710



  • Dell 19.5V 3.34A

19.5V 3.34A 65W Ac Adapter
19.5V 3.34A 65W Ac Adapter



HP Notebook ac adapter Price

  • HP 19V 4.74A  PPP012H-S

19V 4.74A 90W AC Adapter
19V 4.74A 90W AC Adapter



  • HP 18.5V 3.5A

AC Adapter 18.5v 3.5A 30W
AC Adapter 18.5v 3.5A 30W

Applicable:mini1000,mini 110

How to detect Laptop Power adapter problem cause ?

Notebook power adapter, is the basis of the normal work of the laptop, if the power adapter problems, the battery will not be able to charge properly, the interface will also appear bad contact situation.

  1. First, you can see if the power adapter or laptop battery is in good contact by gently shaking the power connector or battery, or if not, try reinstalling the power adapter or battery. Problems that may occur are a distortion of the power connector or a decrease in the elasticity of the battery contact.
  2.  If the power or battery connector is good, the multimeter can be used to test the power adapter or the output voltage of the battery, mainly to see if the output voltage is stable, and the actual output voltage value and the nominal voltage of the power supply is consistent, if the output is unstable or the actual output voltage and product nominal difference, you need to replace the damaged power adapter or battery.
  3.  If the above detection steps are displayed normal, you can infer the problem on the laptop power board or motherboard, here to open the notebook case, and check whether the power board and the motherboard is in good contact.
  4. If the power supply board and battery are in good contact, then use DIY universal replacement method to check whether the power board is normal, such as abnormal, can be replaced.
  5. the power supply board, the battery is normal, it can be inferred that the notebook motherboard or other main components destroyed, at this time can repair or replace the motherboard.

Notebook Power Adapter FAQ:

1.The same voltage power supply, the output current is not the same, can be used in the same notebook? The basic principle is that a power supply with a large nominal current can replace a small nominal current.
2.The same machine, other people’s power temperature, my always very hot, why? Don’t doubt your power supply problem, first see what your notebook is doing.It is important to make good use of power management and adjust the working state of notebooks according to the task.
3.The nominal voltage of the power supply is much higher than my laptop battery voltage. DPower supply to the laptop and the battery to the laptop power is not the same. The supply voltage must be greater than the voltage of the cell to be fully capable of supplying to each unit of the charging control circuit. The last voltage actually added to the cell will never be the nominal voltage of your power supply.

100-105 ICND1 Questions and Answers Practice Test Free

100-105 Exam dumps: Practice test for 100-105 exam with real exam questions and answers. Buy 100-105 ICND1 V3.0 Dumps. Pass your Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1 v3.0) exam. All Study Guide: Cisco 100-105 (Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1 v3.0)) Dumps List.

QUESTION 1: What are two common TCP applications? (Choose two.)

  • A. TFTP
  • B. SMTP
  • C. SNMP
  • D. FTP
  • E. DNS

Correct Answer: BD
Explanation/Reference: SMTP uses TCP port 25, while FTP uses TCP ports 20 and 21. Reference:

QUESTION 2 : Refer to the exhibit. What two things can the technician determine by successfully pinging from this computer to the IP address (Choose two)

  • A. The network card on the computer is functioning correctly.
  • B. The default static route on the gateway router is correctly configured.
  • C. The correct default gateway IP address is configured on the computer.
  • D. The device with the IP address is reachable over the network.
  • E. The default gateway at is able to forward packets to the internet.

Correct Answer: AD
Explanation/Reference: The source and destination addresses are on the same network therefore, a default gateway is not necessary for communication between these two addresses.

QUESTION 3 : A company has placed a networked PC in a lobby so guests can have access to the corporate directory. A security concern is that someone will disconnect the directory PC and re-connect their laptop computer and have access to the corporate network. For the port servicing the lobby, which three configuration steps should be performed on the switch to prevent this? (Choose three.)

  • A. Enable port security.
  • B. Create the port as a trunk port.
  • C. Create the port as an access port.
  • D. Create the port as a protected port.
  • E. Set the port security aging time to 0.
  • F. Statically assign the MAC address to the address table.
  • G. Configure the switch to discover new MAC addresses after a set time of inactivity.

Correct Answer: ACF
Explanation/Reference: If port security is enabled and the port is only designated as access port, and finally static MAC address is assigned, it ensures that even if a physical connection is done by taking out the directory PC and inserting personal laptop or device, the connection cannot be made to the corporate network, hence ensuring safety.

QUESTION 4 : After the network has converged, what type of messaging, if any, occurs between R3 and R4?

  • A. No messages are exchanged
  • B. Hellos are sent every 10 seconds.
  • C. The full database from each router is sent every 30 seconds.
  • D. The routing table from each router is sent every 60 seconds.

Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference: HELLO messages are used to maintain adjacent neighbors so even when the network is converged, hellos are still exchanged. On broadcast multiacess and point-to-point links, the default is 10 seconds. On NBMA, the default is 30 seconds.

QUESTION 5 : Which dynamic routing protocol uses only the hop count to determine the best path to a destination?

  • A. IGRP
  • B. RIP
  • C. EIGRP
  • D. OSPF

Correct Answer: C
Explanation/Reference: RIP(Routing Information Protocol) prevents routing loops by implementing a limit on the number of hops allowed in a path from source to destination. The maximum number of hops allowed for RIP is 15, which limits the size of networks that RIP can support. A hop count of 16 is considered an infinite distance and the route is considered unreachable.

QUESTION 6 : Refer to the topology and partial configurations shown in the exhibit. The network administrator has finished configuring the NewYork and Sydney routers and issues the command ping Sydney from the NewYork router. The ping fails. What command or set of commands should the network administrator issue to correct this problem?

  • A. Sydney(config)# interface s0/0 Sydney(config-if)#cdp enable
  • B. Sydney(config)# interface s0/0 Sydney(config-if)# no shut
  • C. Sydney(config)# line vty 0 4 Sydney(config)# login Sydney(config)# password Sydney
  • D. Sydney(config)# ip host Sydney
  • E. Sydney(config)# interface s0/0 Sydney(config-if)#ip address NewYork(config)# ip host Sydney

Correct Answer: E
Explanation/Reference: Explanation: The IP addresses on the two Serial interfaces of two routers are not in the same subnet so they could not recognize each other and the ping failed. Therefore we must correct the IP addr

QUESTION 7 : An administrator is in the process of changing the configuration of a router. What command will allow the administrator to check the changes that have been made prior to saving the new configuration?

  • A. Router# show startup-config
  • B. Router# show current-config
  • C. Router# show running-config
  • D. Router# show memory
  • E. Router# show flash
  • F. Router# show processes

Correct Answer: C
Explanation/Reference: This command followed by the appropriate parameter will show the running config hence the admin will be able to see what changes have been made, and then they can be saved.

QUESTION 8 : Which protocol uses a connection-oriented service to deliver files between end systems?

  • A. TFTP
  • B. DNS
  • C. FTP
  • D. SNMP
  • E. RIP

Correct Answer: C
Explanation/Reference: TCP is an example of a connection-oriented protocol. It requires a logical connection to be established between the two processes before data is exchanged. The connection must be maintained during the entire time that communication is taking place, then released afterwards. The process is much like a telephone call, where a virtual circuit is established–the caller must know the person’s telephone number and the phone must be answered–before the message can be delivered. TCP/IP is also a connection-oriented transport with orderly release. With orderly release, any data remaining in the buffer is sent before the connection is terminated. The release is accomplished in a three-way handshake between client and server processes. The connection-oriented protocols in the OSI protocol suite, on the other hand, do not support orderly release. Applications perform any handshake necessary for ensuring orderly release. Examples of services that use connection-oriented transport services are telnet, rlogin, and ftp.

QUESTION 9 : Which statement about a router on a stick is true?

  • A. Its date plane router traffic for a single VI AN over two or more switches.
  • B. It uses multiple subinterfaces of a single interface to encapsulate traffic for different VLANs on the same subnet.
  • C. It requires the native VLAN to be disabled.
  • D. It uses multiple subinterfaces of a single interface to encapsulate traffic for different VLANs.

Correct Answer: D
Explanation/Reference: on-a-stick

QUESTION 10 : Refer to the exhibit. Assume that all router interfaces are operational and correctly configured. In addition, assume that OSPF has been correctly configured on router R2. How will the default route configured on R1 affect the operation of R2?

  • A. Any packet destined for a network that is not directly connected to router R2 will be dropped immediately.
  • B. Any packet destined for a network that is not referenced in the routing table of router R2 will be directed to R1. R1 will then send that packet back to R2 and a routing loop will occur.
  • C. Any packet destined for a network that is not directly connected to router R1 will be dropped.
  • D. The networks directly connected to router R2 will not be able to communicate with the,, and subnetworks.
  • E. Any packet destined for a network that is not directly connected to router R2 will be dropped immediately because of the lack of a gateway on R1.

Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference: First, notice that the more-specific routes will always be favored over less-specific routes regardless of the administrative distance set for a protocol. In this case, because we use OSPF for three networks (,, so the packets destined for these networks will not be affected by the default route. The default route configured on R1 “ip route serial0/0 will send any packet whose destination network is not referenced in the routing table of router R1 to R2, it doesn’t drop anything. These routes are declared in R1 and the question says that “OSPF has been correctly configured on router R2, so network directly connected to router R2 can communicate with those three subnetworks. As said above, the default route configured on R1 will send any packet destined for a network that is not referenced in its routing table to R2; R2 in turn sends it to R1 because it is the only way

QUESTION 11 : Which IP address is a private address?

  • A.
  • B.
  • C.
  • D.
  • E.

Correct Answer: C

Refer to the exhibit.

What does the address represent?
A. the TFTP server from which the file startup-config is being transferred
B. the router from which the file startup-config is being transferred
C. the TFTP server from which the file router-confg is being transferred
D. the TFTP server to which the file router-confg is being transferred
E. the router to which the file router-confg is being transferred
F. the router to which the file startup-config is being transferred Correct Answer: D Explanation/Reference:
What two things does a router do when it forwards a packet? (Choose two.)
A. switches the packet to the appropriate outgoing interfaces
B. computes the destination host address
C. determines the next hop on the path
D. updates the destination IP address
E. forwards ARP requests Correct Answer: AC Explanation/Reference: A primary function of a router is to forward packets toward their destination. This is accomplished by using a switching
function, which is the process used by a router to accept a packet on one in
What command sequence will configure a router to run OSPF and add network /24 to area 0?
A. router ospf area 0 network area 0
B. router ospf network
C. router ospf 1 network area 0
D. router ospf area 0 network area 0
E. router ospf network area 0 F. router ospf 1 network Correct Answer: C Explanation/Reference: Enabling OSPFSUMMARY STEPS 1.enable 2.configureterminal 3.router ospfprocess-id 4.networkip-addresswildcard-maskareaarea-id 5.end DETAILED STEPS Comm
The network administrator is using a Windows PC application that is called putty.exe for remote communication to a switch for network troubleshooting. Which two protocols could be used during this communication? (Choose two.)
C. Telnet

E. SSH Correct Answer: CE Explanation/Reference: PuTTY is a free implementation of Telnet and SSH for Windows and Unix platforms, and is used to connect to Cisco
and other networking devices using SSH or Telnet.
Which three statements are true about the operation of a full-duplex Ethernet network? (Choose three.)
A. There are no collisions in full-duplex mode.
B. A dedicated switch port is required for each full-duplex node.
C. Ethernet hub ports are preconfigured for full-duplex mode.
D. In a full-duplex environment, the host network card must check for the availability of the network media before transmitting.
E. The host network card and the switch port must be capable of operating in full-duplex mode.
Correct Answer: ABE
Half-duplex Ethernet is defined in the original 802.3 Ethernet and Cisco says you only use one wire pair with a digital

signal running in both directions on the wire. It also uses the CSMA/CD prot

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator replaced the 10/100 Mb NIC in a desktop PC with a 1 Gb NIC and now the PC will not connect to the network. The administrator began troubleshooting on the switch. Using the switch output shown, what is the cause of the problem?
A. Speed is set to 100Mb/s.
B. Input flow control is off.
C. Encapsulation is set to ARPA.
D. The port is administratively down.
E. The counters have never been cleared.
Correct Answer: A
For PC to switch connectivity, the speed settings must match. In this case, the 1 Gb NIC will not be able to communicate with a 100Mb fast Ethernet interface, unless the 1Gb NIC can be configured to
Identify the four valid IPv6 addresses. (Choose four.)
A. :: B. ::192:168:0:1 C. 2000:: D. 2001:3452:4952:2837:: E. 2002:c0a8:101::42 F. 2003:dead:beef:4dad:23:46:bb:101 Correct Answer: ABEF Explanation/Reference:

What is the purpose of flow control?
A. To ensure data is retransmitted if an acknowledgement is not received.
B. To reassemble segments in the correct order at the destination device.
C. To provide a means for the receiver to govern the amount of data sent by the sender.
D. To regulate the size of each segment.
Correct Answer: C
Flow control is the management of data flow between computers or devices or between nodes in a network so that the

data can be handled at an efficient pace. Too much data arriving before a device ca

Refer to the exhibit.

A network associate has configured OSPF with the command: City(config-router)# network area 0 After completing the configuration, the associate discovers that not all the interfaces are participating in OSPF. Which
three of the interfaces shown in the exhibit will participate in OSPF according to this configuration statement? (Choose three.) A. FastEthernet0 /0 B. FastEthernet0 /1 C. Serial0/0 D. Serial0/1.102 E. Serial0/1.103
F. Serial0/1.104
Correct Answer: BCD
The andquot;network equals to network This network has:
+ Increment: 64 (/26= 1111 1111.1111 1111.1111 1111.1100 0000) + Network address: 192
Which address type does a switch use to make selective forwarding decisions?
A. Source IP address
B. Destination IP address
C. Source and destination IP address
D. Source MAC address
E. Destination MAC address Correct Answer: E Explanation/Reference: Switches analyze the destination MAC to make its forwarding decision since it is a layer 2 device. Routers use the
destination IP address to make forwarding decisions.
Which two VLANs are reserved for system use only? (Choose two) A. 1 B. 4095 C. 4096 D. 0 E. 1001 Correct Answer: BD Explanation/Reference: Explanation: The VLANs 0 and 4095 are reserved by the IEEE 802.1Q standard and you cannot create, delete, or modify them so they are the correct answers.
SW-C has just been added to the network shown in the graphic

What is the purpose of assigning a default gateway to this switch?
A. allows connectivity to Router B from the switch prompt
B. allows console port connectivity to the switch from Host A
C. allows connectivity to remote network devices from Host B
D. allows the switch to pass traffic between Host A and Host B Correct Answer: A Explanation/Reference:

What is the bandwidth on the WAN interface of Router 1? A. 16 Kbit/sec B. 32 Kbit/sec C. 64 Kbit/sec D. 128 Kbit/sec
E. 512 Kbit/sec F. 1544 Kbit/sec Correct Answer: A Explanation/Reference: Use the andquot;show interface s0/0andquot; to see the bandwidth set at 16 Kbit/sec. The show interface s0/0
command results will look something like this and the bandwidth will be represented by th
Which of the following describe the process identifier that is used to run OSPF on a router? (Choose two)
A. It is locally significant.

B. It is globally significant.

C. It is needed to identify a unique instance of an OSPF database.

D. It is an optional parameter required only if multiple OSPF processes are running on the router.

E. All routers in the same OSPF area must have the same process ID if they are to exchange routing information.
Correct Answer: AC
They are locally significant only, and have no bearing on the structure of any OSPF packet or LSA update.
So you can have a separate proc

Which statements are true regarding ICMP packets? (Choose two.)
A. They acknowledge receipt of TCP segments.

B. They guarantee datagram delivery.

C. TRACERT uses ICMP packets.

D. They are encapsulated within IP datagrams.

E. They are encapsulated within UDP datagrams.
Correct Answer: CD
Ping may be used to find out whether the local machines are connected to the network or whether a remote site is

reachable. This tool is a common network tool for determining the network connectivi

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two statements are true about the loopback address that is configured on RouterB? (Choose two.)
A. It ensures that data will be forwarded by RouterB.
B. It provides stability for the OSPF process on RouterB.
C. It specifies that the router ID for RouterB should be
D. It decreases the metric for routes that are advertised from RouterB.
E. It indicates that RouterB should be elected the DR for the LAN.
Correct Answer: BC
A loopback interface never comes down even if the link is broken so it provides stability for the OSPF process (for

example we use that loopback interface as the router-id) – The router-ID is chose

You are a junior network engineer for a financial company, and the main office network is experiencing
network issues. Troubleshoot the network issues.
Router R1 connects the main office to the internet, and routers R2 and R3 are internal routers.
NAT is enabled on router R1.
The routing protocol that is enabled between routers R1, R2 and R3 is RIPv2.

R1 sends the default route into RIPv2 for the internal routers to forward internet traffic to R1.
You have console access on R1, R2 and R3 devices. Use only show commands to troubleshoot the issues.

Users complain that they are unable to reach internet sites. You are troubleshooting internet connectivity problem at main office. Which statement correctly identifies the problem on Router R1?
A. Interesting traffic for NAT ACL is incorrectly configured.
B. NAT configurations on the interfaces are incorrectly configured C. NAT translation statement incorrectly configured.
D. Only static NAT translation configured for the server, missing Dynamic NAT or Dynamic NAT overloading for internal networks.
Correct Answer: B Explanation/Reference:
Refer to the exhibit.

The MAC address table is shown in its entirety. The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives at the switch. What two operations will the switch perform when it receives this frame? (Choose two.)
A. The switch will not forward a frame with this destination MAC address.

B. The MAC address of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be added to the MAC Address Table.

C. The MAC address of ffff.ffff.ffff will be added to the MAC address table.

D. The frame will be forwarded out of all the active switch ports except for port fa0/0.

E. The frame will be forwarded out of fa0/0 and fa0/1 only.

F. The frame will be forwarded out of all the ports on the switch.
Correct Answer: BD

If the switch already has the MAC address in its table for the destination, it will forward the frame directly to the destination port. If it was not already in its MAC table, then they frame would
Refer to the exhibit.

The network is converged.After link-state advertisements are received from Router_A, what information will Router_E contain in its routing table for the subnets and
A.[110/13] via, 00:00:07, FastEthemet0/0[110/13] via, 00:00:16, FastEthemet0/0
B.[110/1] via, 00:00:07, Serial1/0[110/3] via, 00:00:16, FastEthemet0/0
C.[110/13] via, 00:00:07, Serial1/0[110/13] via, 00:00:16, Serial1/0[110/13] via, 00:00:16, FastEthemet0/0
D.[110/3] via, 00:00:07, Serial1/0[110/3] via, 00:00:16,
Correct Answer: A

Router_E learns two subnets subnets and via Router_A through FastEthernet interface.
The interface cost is calculated with the formula 108 / Bandwidth. For FastEthernet i

100-105 ICND1 – Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1 v3.0)

What is the CCENT or CCNA Certification? Difference and Difference

CCENT exam is just the first exam (but not the only one) towards obtaining the CCNA certification. The CCENT certification consists of one exam 640-822 ICND1. The recommended course for the CCENT exam is Interconnecting Cisco Network Devices 1 (ICND1). 100-105 ICND1 Dump. You have the CCENT certification when you pass the ICND1(100-101), You are CCNA when you pass ICND2(200-101), and you can also become a CCNA certified when you pass only the exam 200-120 CCNA v2.0 by August 20, 2016. icnd1 100-105 dumps pdf. The CCNA exam and training course have been revised from 200-120 CCNA v2.0 to 200-125 CCNA v3.0. Candidates can only choose to take the 200-125 CCNA v3.0 exam after that.

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Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1

Exam Number 100-105 ICND1
Associated Certifications CCENT, CCNA Routing & Switching, CCDA, CCNA Security, CCNA Wireless
Duration 90 Minutes (45-55 questions)
Available Languages English, Japanese
Register Pearson VUE: Computer-Based Test (CBT) development and delivery
Exam Policies Read current policies and requirements
Exam Tutorial Review type of exam questions

What Skills will You master, if You Pass the CCENT exam?

This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge and skills related to network fundamentals, LAN switching technologies, routing technologies, infrastructure services, and infrastructure maintenance.

  1. Subnetting (What is Subnetting?)
  2. Configure Cisco Routers and Switches. Know the basics of networking, Know how to configure a small network with Cisco routers / switches and more.
  3. Using a LAN Management Tool to Deploy a LAN
  4. Troubleshoot networking issues, Find Network Issues Instantly‎ & Predict Faster‎
  5. Knowledge to interview for a networking job
  6. After getting Cisco ICND1 Associated Certifications, You can start a career in networking

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A variety of Cisco Press titles may be available for this exam. These titles can be purchased through Cisco Press.

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  • Vendor: Cisco
  • Certifications: ICND1
  • Exam Name: Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1 v3.0)
  • Exam Code: 100-105
  • Total Questions: 484 Q&As
  • Last Updated: Nov 22, 2017

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The topics covered on the ICND1 exam include:

  • Networking fundamentals
  • Connecting to a WAN
  • Basic Security
  • Basic Wireless Concepts
  • Routing and Switching fundamentals
  • OSI and TCP/IP models
  • IP Addressing
  • WAN technologies, connections, and encapsulation
  • Configuring and operating Cisco router and switch IOS devices
  • Static routing and dynamic routing with RIPv2
  • Network Address Translation (NAT) and DHCP.
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