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Question 1:

Which of the following DoD directives is referred to as the Defense Automation Resources Management Manual?

A. DoDD 8000.1

B. DoD 7950.1-M

C. DoD 5200.22-M

D. DoD 8910.1

E. DoD 5200.1-R

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

Numerous information security standards promote good security practices and define frameworks or systems to structure the analysis and design for managing information security controls. Which of the following are the international information security standards? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. Human resources security

B. Organization of information security

C. Risk assessment and treatment

D. AU audit and accountability

Correct Answer: ABC

Explanation


Question 3:

Joan is a project management consultant and she has been hired by a firm to help them identify risk events within the project. Joan would first like to examine the project documents including the plans, assumptions lists, project files, and contracts.

What key thing will help Joan to discover risks within the review of the project documents?

A. The project documents will help the project manager, or Joan, to identify what risk identification approach is best to pursue.

B. Plans that have loose definitions of terms and disconnected approaches will reveal risks.

C. Poorly written requirements will reveal inconsistencies in the project plans and documents.

D. Lack of consistency between the plans and the project requirements and assumptions can be the indicators of risk in the project.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation


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Question 1:

Huawei product technology training is designed based on the entire life cycle of the service, so all product line courses have corresponding plans,

A. True eeN#

B. False >

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

Which kind of scene is not to be provided by T? ()

A. original labor platform is about to pass insurance / B over insurance, it seems to purchase Huawei\’s virtual platform

B. New 11; After the battle, it seems to purchase Huawei\’s virtual platform

C. original It platform space can no longer be expanded again, through the purchase of Huawei\’s optimistic platform for more room for privacy

D. original IT platform performance B can not meet the needs of it, buy Huawei virtual m platform to soar performance

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

IP network project service expansion when to introduce service sales is most appropriate

A. customer\’s pre-project M {IM file)

B. customer is in the middle

C. After the client has established the project

D. customer after bidding

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

SmartNOS Bo is a subscription-based service that does not include a single evaluation optimization service.

A. True

B. False file>

C. S-process network

D. planning S service

Correct Answer: ABCD


Question 5:

The IP planning and design service is more integrated with the planning of the S-Pen, and the front-end design is the work center.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

The status quo of traditional special IT subcontracting (multiple choices)

A. Each subcontractor draws up with each other ()

B. subcontractors are separated from each other ()

C. customer Lei wants more communication |

D. tube buried simple

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 7:

Advanced technical wood special training is a relatively important type of training freezing process in Huawei training and certification system.

A. Planning training

B. Design class

C. Real temple training

D. Drag class Igtflp white ?Bitter cas>;

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

Huawei Enterprise Network China Data Center L1 Integration Service Project Contract Level U

A. is integrated (positive case)

B. BMf$, ^

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

Huawei let migration solution: scheme is mainly divided into three kinds of fields, _ one is wrong? >

A. P2V also

B. other factories _ migration between umbrellas Positive case>

C. V2V \’

D. Huawei cloud platform internal migration

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

The L1 integration project of the teaching center is: the guilt that the R feedback should contain is (multiple choice)

A. client\’s capital budget and time requirements ()

B. Day of the customer show, the situation of the S, the progress of the channel platform

C. main competition opponents dynamic

D. current project operation phase ()

Correct Answer: ACD


Question 11:

Cloud IDC project government investment style (multiple choice)

A. financial allocation chess

B. BT chess style file>

C. public *

Correct Answer: AB


Question 12:

Huawei\’s acquisition and certification system is based on years of experience in information and communication technology, and the development of the development of the ii. The tomb of the ICT households allows the individual to take the development cycle of the chain, with the hierarchical job-oriented technical certification as a guide. , Huawei\’s “cloud one end of one” erosion technology, the introduction of IP, IT, CT and ICT shafting technology certification system; is the only ICT full technical field certification system.

A. true

B. False>

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

Huawei takes the ii certificationT o represent, the following is correct in the “CAhT” CT English mother is: (]

A. Certificate (recognition 5E)

B. Convergence

C. Cover (coverage)

D. Complete

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

Data Center L1 Level 11; : 4S Stage Target ( > (multiple choice)

A. 1 from the existing contract interface and output service <positive)

B. sub-packaged Yan Guanyu and Tips (in the case of the case)

C. is good for steep resources and bad {correct case>

D. to make a reasonable S-effect construction plan | >

E. do a good job before the completion of technical delivery and training (positive _ murder case)

Correct Answer: ABCDE


Question 15:

The total integration mode can be completed by one bidding

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

A company is deploying ArubaOS-CX switches to support 135 employees, which will tunnel client traffic to an Aruba Mobility Controller (MC) for the MC to apply firewall policies and deep packet inspection (DPI). This MC will be dedicated to receiving traffic from the ArubaOS-CX switches.

What are the licensing requirements for the MC?

A. one AP license per-switch

B. one PEF license per-switch

C. one PEF license per-switch. and one WCC license per-switch

D. one AP license per-switch. and one PEF license per-switch

Correct Answer: D


Question 2:

Which is a correct description of a stage in the Lockheed Martin kill chain?

A. In the delivery stage, malware collects valuable data and delivers or exfilltrated it to the hacker.

B. In the reconnaissance stage, the hacker assesses the impact of the attack and how much information was exfilltrated.

C. In the weaponization stage, which occurs after malware has been delivered to a system, the malware executes Its function.

D. In the exploitation and installation phases, malware creates a backdoor into the infected system for the hacker.

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

Refer to the exhibit.

You are deploying a new ArubaOS Mobility Controller (MC), which is enforcing authentication to Aruba ClearPass Policy Manager (CPPM). The authentication is not working correctly, and you find the error shown In the exhibit in the CPPM Event Viewer.

What should you check?

A. that the MC has been added as a domain machine on the Active Directory domain with which CPPM is synchronized

B. that the snared secret configured for the CPPM authentication server matches the one defined for the device on CPPM

C. that the IP address that the MC is using to reach CPPM matches the one defined for the device on CPPM

D. that the MC has valid admin credentials configured on it for logging into the CPPM

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

Refer to the exhibit.

A diem is connected to an ArubaOS Mobility Controller. The exhibit snows all Tour firewall rules that apply to this diem

What correctly describes how the controller treats HTTPS packets to these two IP addresses, both of which are on the other side of the firewall?

10.1 10.10

203.0.13.5

A. It drops both of the packets

B. It permits the packet to 10.1.10.10 and drops the packet to 203 0.13.5

C. it permits both of the packets

D. It drops the packet to 10.1.10.10 and permits the packet to 203.0.13.5.

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

What is one way that WPA3-PerSonal enhances security when compared to WPA2- Personal?

A. WPA3-Perscn3i is more secure against password leaking Because all users nave their own username and password

B. WPA3-Personai prevents eavesdropping on other users\’ wireless traffic by a user who knows the passphrase for the WLAN.

C. WPA3-Personai is more resistant to passphrase cracking Because it requires passphrases to be at least 12 characters

D. WPA3-Personal is more complicated to deploy because it requires a backend authentication server

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

You have been asked to rind logs related to port authentication on an ArubaOS-CX switch for events logged in the past several hours But. you are having trouble searching through the logs. What is one approach that you can take to find the relevant logs?

A. Add the “-C and *-c port-access” options to the “show logging” command.

B. Configure a logging Tiller for the “port-access” category, and apply that filter globally.

C. Enable debugging for “portaccess” to move the relevant logs to a buffer.

D. Specify a logging facility that selects for “port-access” messages.

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

Refer to the exhibit.

How can you use the thumbprint?

A. Install this thumbprint on management stations to use as two-factor authentication along with manager usernames and passwords, this will ensure managers connect from valid stations

B. Copy the thumbprint to other Aruba switches to establish a consistent SSH Key for all switches this will enable managers to connect to the switches securely with less effort

C. When you first connect to the switch with SSH from a management station, make sure that the thumbprint matches to ensure that a man-in-t he-mid die (MITM) attack is not occurring

D. install this thumbprint on management stations the stations can then authenticate with the thumbprint instead of admins having to enter usernames and passwords.

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

What is a benefit of deploying Aruba ClearPass Device insight?

A. Highly accurate endpoint classification for environments with many devices types, including Internet of Things (loT)

B. visibility into devices\’ 802.1X supplicant settings and automated certificate deployment

C. Agent-based analysts of devices\’ security settings and health status, with the ability to implement quarantining

D. Simpler troubleshooting of ClearPass solutions across an environment with multiple ClearPass Policy Managers

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

What are the roles of 802.1X authenticators and authentication servers?

A. The authenticator stores the user account database, while the server stores access policies.

B. The authenticator supports only EAP, while the authentication server supports only RADIUS.

C. The authenticator is a RADIUS client and the authentication server is a RADIUS server.

D. The authenticator makes access decisions and the server communicates them to the supplicant.

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

A company has Aruba Mobility Controllers (MCs). Aruba campus APs. and ArubaOS-CX switches. The company plans to use ClearPass Policy Manager (CPPM) to classify endpoints by type The ClearPass admins tell you that they want to run Network scans as part of the solution.

What should you do to configure the infrastructure to support the scans?

A. Create a TA profile on the ArubaOS-Switches with the root CA certificate for ClearPass\’s HTTPS certificate

B. Create device fingerprinting profiles on the ArubaOS-Switches that include SNMP. and apply the profiles to edge ports

C. Create remote mirrors on the ArubaOS-Swrtches that collect traffic on edge ports, and mirror it to CPPM\’s IP address.

D. Create SNMPv3 users on ArubaOS-CX switches, and make sure that the credentials match those configured on CPPM

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

What is a difference between radius and TACACS ?

A. RADIUS combines the authentication and authorization process while TACACS separates them.

B. RADIUS uses TCP for Its connection protocol, while TACACS uses UDP tor its connection protocol.

C. RADIUS encrypts the complete packet, white TACACS only offers partial encryption.

D. RADIUS uses Attribute Value Pairs (AVPs) in its messages, while TACACS does not use them.

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

You have been instructed to look in the ArubaOS Security Dashboard\’s client list Your goal is to find clients mat belong to the company and have connected to devices that might belong to hackers.

Which client fits this description?

A. MAC address d8:50:e6:f3;6d;a4; Client Classification Authorized; AP Classification, interfering

B. MAC address d8:50:e6 f3;6e;c5; Client Classification Interfering. AP Classification Neighbor

C. MAC address d8:50:e6:f3;6e;60; Client Classification Interfering. AP Classification Interfering

D. MAC address d8:50:e6:f3;TO;ab; Client Classification Interfering. AP Classification Rogue

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

From which solution can ClearPass Policy Manager (CPPM) receive detailed information about client device type OS and status?

A. ClearPass Onboard

B. ClearPass Access Tracker

C. ClearPass OnGuard

D. ClearPass Guest

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

You are troubleshooting an authentication issue for Aruba switches that enforce 802 IX10 a cluster of Aruba ClearPass Policy Manager (CPPMs) You know that CPPM Is receiving and processing the authentication requests because the Aruba switches are showing Access-Rejects in their statistics However, you cannot find the record tor the Access- Rejects in CPPM Access Tracker.

What is something you can do to look for the records?

A. Make sure that CPPM cluster settings are configured to show Access-Rejects

B. Verify that you are logged in to the CPPM Ul with read-write, not read-only, access

C. Click Edit in Access viewer and make sure that the correct servers are selected.

D. Go to the CPPM Event Viewer, because this is where RADIUS Access Rejects are stored.

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

A company with 382 employees wants to deploy an open WLAN for guests. The company wants the experience to be as follows:

The company also wants to provide encryption for the network for devices mat are capable, you implement Tor the WLAN.

Which security options should?

A. WPA3-Personal and MAC-Auth

B. Captive portal and WPA3-Personai

C. Captive portal and Opportunistic Wireless Encryption (OWE) in transition mode

D. Opportunistic Wireless Encryption (OWE) and WPA3-Personal

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

Your organization\’s corporate website must be available on www.acme.com and acme.com. How should you configure Amazon Route 53 to meet this requirement?

A. Configure acme.com with an ALIAS record targeting the ELB. www.acme.com with an ALIAS record targeting the ELB.

B. Configure acme.com with an A record targeting the ELB. www.acme.com with a CNAME record targeting the acme.com record.

C. Configure acme.com with a CNAME record targeting the ELB. www.acme.com with a CNAME record targeting the acme.com record.

D. Configure acme.com using a second ALIAS record with the ELB target. www.acme.com using a PTR record with the acme.com record target.

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

You are building an application in AWS that requires Amazon Elastic MapReduce (Amazon EMR). The application needs to resolve hostnames in your internal, on-premises Active Directory domain. You update your DHCP Options Set in the VPC to point to a pair of Active Directory integrated DNS servers running in your VPC.

Which action is required to support a successful Amazon EMR cluster launch?

A. Add a conditional forwarder to the Amazon-provided DNS server.

B. Enable seamless domain join for the Amazon EMR cluster.

C. Launch an AD connector for the internal domain.

D. Configure an Amazon Route 53 private zone for the EMR cluster.

Correct Answer: B

References: https://aws.amazon.com/blogs/security/how-to-connect-your-on-premises-active-directory-toaws-using-ad-connector/


Question 3:

You have a three-tier web application with separate subnets for Web, Applications, and Database tiers. Your CISO suspects your application will be the target of malicious activity. You are tasked with notifying the security team in the event your application is port scanned by external systems.

Which two AWS Services cloud you leverage to build an automated notification system? (Choose two.)

A. Internet gateway

B. VPC Flow Logs

C. AWS CloudTrail

D. Lambda

E. AWS Inspector

Correct Answer: CD

References: https://aws.amazon.com/blogs/security/how-to-receive-alerts-when-specific-apis-are-calledby-using-aws-cloudtrail-amazon-sns-and-aws-lambda/


Question 4:

You are designing the network infrastructure for an application server in Amazon VPC. Users will access all the application instances from the Internet and from an on-premises network. The on-premises network is connected to your VPC over an AWS Direct Connect link.

How should you design routing to meet these requirements?

A. Configure a single routing table with two default routes: one to the Internet via an IGW, the other to the on-premises network via the VGW. Use this routing table across all subnets in your VPC.

B. Configure two routing tables: one that has a default route via the IGW, and another that has a default route via the VGW. Associate both routing tables with each VPC subnet.

C. Configure a single routing table with a default route via the IGW. Propagate a default route via BGP on the AWS Direct Connect customer router. Associate the routing table with all VPC subnet.

D. Configure a single routing table with a default route via the IGW. Propagate specific routes for the on-premises networks via BGP on the AWS Direct Connect customer router. Associate the routing table with all VPC subnets.

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

Your company decides to use Amazon S3 to augment its on-premises data store. Instead of using the company\’s highly controlled, on-premises Internet gateway, a Direct Connect connection is ordered to provide high bandwidth, low latency access to S3. Since the company does not own a publically routable IPv4 address block, a request was made to AWS for an AWS-owned address for a Public Virtual Interface (VIF).

The security team is calling this new connection a “backdoor”, and you have been asked to clarify the risk to the company.

Which concern from the security team is valid and should be addressed?

A. AWS advertises its aggregate routes to the Internet allowing anyone on the Internet to reach the router.

B. Direct Connect customers with a Public VIF in the same region could directly reach the router.

C. EC2 instances in the same region with access to the Internet could directly reach the router.

D. The S3 service could reach the router through a pre-configured VPC Endpoint.

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

Your organization uses a VPN to connect to your VPC but must upgrade to a 1-G AWS Direct Connect connection for stability and performance. Your telecommunications provider has provisioned the circuit from your data center to an AWS Direct Connect facility and needs information on how to cross-connect (e.g., which rack/port to connect).

What is the AWS-recommended procedure for providing this information?

A. Create a support ticket. Provide your AWS account number and telecommunications company\’s name and where you need the Direct Connect connection to terminate.

B. Create a new connection through your AWS Management Console and wait for an email from AWS with information.

C. Ask your telecommunications provider to contact AWS through an AWS Partner Channel. Provide your AWS account number.

D. Contact an AWS Account Manager and provide your AWS account number, telecommunications company\’s name, and where you need the Direct Connect connection to terminate.

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

You manage a web service that is used by client applications deployed in 300 offices worldwide. The web service architecture is an Elastic Load balancer (ELB) distributing traffic across four application servers deployed in an autoscaling group across two availability zones.

The ELB is configured to use round robin, and sticky sessions are disabled. You have configured the NACLs and Security Groups to allow port 22 from your bastion host, and port 80 from 0.0.0.0/0. The client configuration is managed by each regional IT team.

Upon inspection you find that a large amount of requests from incorrectly configured sites are causing a single application server to degrade. The remainder of the requests are equally distributed across all servers with no negative effects.

What should you do to remedy the situation and prevent future occurrences?

A. Mark the affected instance as degraded in the ELB and raise it with the client application team.

B. Update the NACL to only allow port 80 to the application servers from the ELB servers.

C. Update the Security Groups to only allow port 80 to the application servers from the ELB.

D. Terminate the affected instance and allow Auto Scaling to create a new instance.

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

A multinational organization has applications deployed in three different AWS regions. These applications must securely communicate with each other by VPN. According to the organization\’s security team, the VPN must meet the following requirements:

1.

AES 128-bit encryption

2.

SHA-1 hashing

3.

User access via SSL VPN

4.

PFS using DH Group 2

5.

Ability to maintain/rotate keys and passwords

6.

Certificate-based authentication

Which solution should you recommend so that the organization meets the requirements?

A. AWS hardware VPN between the virtual private gateway and customer gateway

B. A third-party VPN solution deployed from AWS Marketplace

C. A private MPLS solution from an international carrier

D. AWS hardware VPN between the virtual private gateways in each region

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

Refer to the image.

You have three VPCs: A, B, and C. VPCs A and C are both peered with VPC B. The IP address ranges are as follows:

1.

VPC A: 10.0.0.0/16

2.

VPC B: 192.168.0.0/16

3.

VPC C: 10.0.0.0/16

Instance i-1 in VPC A has the IP address 10.0.0.10. Instance i-2 in VPC C has the IP address 10.0.0.10. Instances i-3 and i-4 in VPC B have the IP addresses 192.168.1.10 and 192.168.1.20, respectively, i-3 and i-4 are in the subnet 192.168.1.0/24.

1.

i-3 must be able to communicate with i-1

2.

i-4 must be able to communicate with i-2

3.

i-3 and i-4 are able to communicate with i-1, but not with i-2.

Which two steps will fix this problem? (Choose two.)

A. Create subnets 192.168.1.0/28 and 192.168.1.16/28. Move i-3 and i-4 to these subnets, respectively.

B. Create subnets 192.168.1.0/27 and 192.168.1.16/27. Move i-3 and i-4 to these subnets, respectively.

C. Change the IP address of i-2 to 10.0.0.100. Assign it an elastic IP address.

D. Create a new route table for VPC B, with unique route entries for destination VPC A and destination VPC C.

E. Create two route tables: one with a route for destination VPC A, and another for destination VPC C.

Correct Answer: AE


Question 10:

A legacy, on-premises web application cannot be load balanced effectively. There are both planned and unplanned events that cause usage spikes to millions of concurrent users. The existing infrastructure cannot handle the usage spikes. The CIO has mandated that the application be moved to the cloud to avoid further disruptions, with the additional requirement that source IP addresses be unaltered to support network traffic-monitoring needs. Which of the following designs will meet these requirements?

A. Use an Auto Scaling group of Amazon EC2 instances behind a Classic Load Balancer.

B. Use an Auto Scaling group of EC2 instances in a target group behind an Application Load Balancer.

C. Use an Auto Scaling group of EC2 instances in a target group behind a Classic Load Balancer.

D. Use an Auto Scaling group of EC2 instances in a target group behind a Network Load Balancer.

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

An organization processes consumer information submitted through its website. The organization\’s security policy requires that personally identifiable information (PII) elements are specifically encrypted at all times and as soon as feasible when received. The front-end Amazon EC2 instances should not have access to decrypted PII. A single service within the production VPC must decrypt the PII by leveraging an IAM role.

Which combination of services will support these requirements? (Choose two.)

A. Amazon Aurora in a private subnet

B. Amazon CloudFront using AWS [email protected]

C. Customer-managed MySQL with Transparent Data Encryption

D. Application Load Balancer using HTTPS listeners and targets

E. AWS Key Management Services

Correct Answer: CE

References: https://noise.getoto.net/tag/aws-kms/


Question 12:

A Lambda function needs to access the private address of an Amazon ElastiCache cluster in a VPC. The Lambda function also needs to write messages to Amazon SQS. The Lambda function has been configured to run in a subnet in the VPC.

Which of the following actions meet the requirements? (Choose two.)

A. The Lambda function needs an IAM role to access Amazon SQS

B. The Lambda function must route through a NAT gateway or NAT instance in another subnet to access the public SQS API.

C. The Lambda function must be assigned a public IP address to access the public Amazon SQS API.

D. The ElastiCache server outbound security group rules must be configured to permit the Lambda function\’s security group.

E. The Lambda function must consume auto-assigned public IP addresses but not elastic IP addresses.

Correct Answer: AC

References: https://aws.amazon.com/premiumsupport/knowledge-center/internet-access-lambda-function/


Question 13:

You are deploying an EC2 instance in a private subnet that requires access to the Internet. One of the requirements for this solution is to restrict access to only particular URLs on a whitelist. In addition to the whitelisted URLs, the instances should be able to access any Amazon S3 bucket in the same region via any URL.

Which of the following solutions should you deploy? (Choose two.)

A. Include s3.amazonaws.com in the whitelist.

B. Create a VPC endpoint for S3.

C. Run Squid proxy on a NAT instance.

D. Deploy a NAT gateway into your VPC.

E. Utilize a security group to restrict access.

Correct Answer: CD


Question 14:

Your company runs an HTTPS application using an Elastic Load Balancing (ELB) load balancer/PHP on nginx server/RDS in multiple Availability Zones. You need to apply Geographic Restriction and identify the client\’s IP address in your application to generate dynamic content.

How should you utilize AWS services in a scalable fashion to perform this task?

A. Modify the nginx log configuration to record value in X-Forwarded-For and use CloudFront to apply the Geographic Restriction.

B. Enable ELB access logs to store the client IP address and parse these to dynamically modify a blacklist.

C. Use X-Forwarded-For with security groups to apply the Geographic Restriction.

D. Modify the application code to use value of X-Forwarded-For and CloudFront to apply the Geographic Restriction.

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

You run a well-architected, multi-AZ application in the eu-central-1 (Frankfurt) AWS region. The application is hosted in a VPC and is only accessed from the corporate network. To support large volumes of data transfer and administration of the application, you use a single 10-Gbps AWS Direct Connect connection with multiple private virtual interfaces. As part of a review, you decide to improve the resilience of your connection to AWS and make sure that any additional connectivity does not share the same Direct Connect routers at AWS. You need to provide the best levels of resilience to meet the application\’s needs.

Which two options should you consider? (Choose two.)

A. Install a second 10-Gbps Direct Connect connection to the same Direct Connection location.

B. Deploy an IPsec VPN over a public virtual interface on a new 10-Gbps Direct Connect connection.

C. Install a second 10-Gbps Direct Connect connection to a Direct Connect location in eu-west-1.

D. Deploy an IPsec VPN over the Internet to the eu-west-1 region for diversity.

E. Install a second 10-Gbps Direct Connect connection to a second Direct Connect location for eucentral-1.

Correct Answer: BC


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Question 1:

A customer wants to integrate an e-Commerce platform with their AEM site. Product data is stored on a separate Product Information Management (PIM) system. PIM is managed by the e-Commerce platform. The customer has the following requirements:

1.

Product images need to be stored on AEM

2.

The customer has a central API gateway and would want to leverage that the gateway for integration What should the Architect recommend to display product data?

A. Import all product data into AEM once and incrementally keep it up-to-date with PIM

B. Create an OSGi service to fetch Product data from PIM

C. Import all product data into AEM because the customer needs to add marketing attributes to product data

D. Use Micro Services to fetch product data to AEM at runtime and cache it for faster access

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

A customer with a static website uses an agency to centrally manage its content. The website is targeted for an international audience as shown in the following diagram:

Which model should the Architect recommend to improve performance?

A. Publish to and cache content in the CDN

B. Use Adobe Target to deliver content in each region

C. Load balance three AEM publishers

D. Deploy an author-publisher pair in each region

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

Which technology is used to integrate Adobe Launch in AEM?

A. Adobe Analytics

B. Adobe Sensei

C. Adobe DTM

D. Adobe IO

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://helpx.adobe.com/experience-manager/kt/integration/using/aem-launch-integration-tutorial-understand.html


Question 4:

A large digital agency has 10 TB of assets in their DAM where renditions for each Asset must be created without affecting performance for the authors. Which capability should the Architect recommend to meet the requirements?

A. Create AEM multi-threaded workflow

B. Use AEM Asset Offloading

C. Update dispatcher configuration to cache Assets

D. Reduce the number of AEM Asset versions

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

A client currently licenses AEM, Abode Target, and Adobe Analytics.

The client wants to increase organizational efficiencies by enabling content producers to have the ability to create personalized experiences in AEM. They want the results to be captured in Adobe Analytics.

Which implementation strategy should the Architect recommend?

A. Configure a replication agent that points to Adobe Target and use Adobe Launch for Analytics tags on the AEM Site

B. Place Adobe Target and Analytics tags onto your AEM Site

C. Place Analytics tags on your AEM Site and the Visual Experience Composer in Target

D. Use Targeting Mode in AEM and use Analytics for Target (A4T) as the reporting source.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.adobe.com/content/help/en/target/using/experiences/offers/aem-experience-fragments.html


Question 6:

A client\’s marketing pages are generally slow to load which is causing a significant drop in sales. All other AEM pages load within expected performance guidelines regardless of whether the visitor is being served the desktop or mobile experiences.

The marketing pages typically get slower when multiple external campaigns such as Facebook or AdWords drive traffic to those pages. The page performance tends to dip during high traffic periods Internal campaign clicks such as those from hero images use similar campaign codes as external campaign traffic.

What should the Architect do to resolve this issue?

A. Convert the marketing pages to a responsive design instead of an adaptive design

B. Set AEM to use GZIP compression instead of the web servers compression

C. Add a new dispatcher farm to assist with the clients marketing pages

D. Modify the dispatcher.any files section to ignore campaign-based URL parameters

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

A customer with an international website has authors all over the world who work on content. Each day, a high amount of content changes are done through page editing, workflows, and translations. Performance of the AEM Author starts off fine but degrades over time. Monitoring shows the available disk space is steadily decreasing. A health check shows that the daily maintenance jobs did not finish. What two actions should the Architect do to resolve the issue? (Choose two.)

A. Run version and workflow purging

B. Recommend running offline Tar compaction

C. Recommend running online Tar compaction

D. Extend the daily window for online revision cleanup

E. Increase the allocated memory to AEM

Correct Answer: CE


Question 8:

Which node store should be configured to store a large number of binaries?

A. Default JCR Repository

B. Segment node store

C. File Data store

D. Document node store

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://helpx.adobe.com/experience-manager/6-3/sites/deploying/using/data-store-config.html#DataStoreConfigurations


Question 9:

A customer wants to expose existing content from AEM to other applications. What solution should the Architect recommend to meet this requirement?

A. Use the metadata export pool

B. Use the AEM Data Services interface

C. Use Content Services

D. Create a custom data importer service

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.adobe.com/content/help/en/experience-manager-learn/getting-started-with-aem-headless/chapter-7.html


Question 10:

The customer wants to have an ecommerce website with several sites pages with the following criteria:

AEM servers and the ecommerce platform are hosted and managed on different domains Timing constraints and ecommerce product evolution require that the cart and the products pages be delivered directly from ecommerce platform and not by AEM Part of the page is written using a SPA framework

What should the Architect do to mitigate Cross Origin Resource Sharing?

A. Use Server Side Include on AEM pages to display ecommerce data

B. Use OSGI services to make calls to the ecommerce platform

C. Use Ajax calls to make calls to the ecommerce platform

D. Use proxy server to separate traffic for AEM and ecommerce platforms

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

Which format can content services export to out of the box (OOTB)?

A. CSV

B. HTML

C. TEXT

D. JSON

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://helpx.adobe.com/cz/experience-manager/6-4/mobile/using/rendering-and-delivery.html


Question 12:

How should an Architect reduce the time needed to index content?

A. Set the queryPaths property

B. Convert any property index to a lucene index

C. Set the include or excludePaths properties

D. Set the reindex property to true

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.adobe.com/content/help/en/experience-manager-64/deploying/deploying/oak-run-indexing-usecases.html


Question 13:

An Architect is creating an index to optimize data retrieval from AEM. The Architect implements a Property index instead of a Lucene index. What is an advantage of the Property index?

A. Property indexes support uniqueness constraints

B. Lucene indexes are supported after AEM version 6.3

C. Property indexes are faster than Lucene indexes

D. Property indexes offer more features than Lucene indexes

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.adobe.com/content/help/en/experience-manager-64/deploying/practices/best-practices-for-queries-and-indexing.html


Question 14:

A customer maintains user accounts in an external database and wants to authenticate AEM users using the users stored in the database. What should the Architect create?

A. A custom authentication handler and external identity provider

B. A customer authentication filter and a user sync handler

C. A customer authentication filter and an external identity provider

D. A customer authentication handler and an authentication filter

Correct Answer: D


Question 15:

Which approach should be used when applying ACLs to a user that has been synchronized with an LDAP?

A. Apply permissions to the synced group

B. Add user property mappings for a synced user. AEM will assign ACL\’s based on these

C. Apply permissions directly to the synced user

D. Add a synced group to a local AEM group that has permissions

Correct Answer: B


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Question 1:

Universal Containers has an output document with a line item table that currently displays product options that are marked as Included. What step should the Admin take to remove the Included products from the line item table?

A. Set the Show Bundled Products field to False on the Quote Template.

B. Set the Hide Included Products field to True on the Quote Template.

C. Create a Quote Line field OutputVisibility__C that returns False if Included = True.

D. Create a filter on the line items Template Section where Component = False

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

The Universal Containers Admin is creating a custom formula field, Approval Score, on the Quote Line object to calculate approval score. This field will calculate the average approval score for the Quote to determine how many levels of approval the record should go through when submitted.

The Admin planned to use a roll-up summary field on the Quote object to average the Quote Line Approval Score field. The Admin received an error when attempting to create the field. The Quote object has too many roll-up summary fields.

In addition to creating a custom number field on the Quote object to capture the average Approval Score, which action Should the Admin take to resolve the issue?

A. Create a trigger to populate the average Approval Score.

B. Create a Summary Variable and Product Rule to populate the number field with the average Approval Score.

C. Create a Workflow Rule with a Field Update to populate the average Approval Score.

D. Create a Summary Variable and Price Rule to populate the number field with the average Approval Score.

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

“UC sells a monthly subscription service with tiered pricing:

Total Price

$1,000 for the first 100 units

$1,000 plus $9 per unit above 100

$4,600 plus $8 per unit above 500 $8,600 plus $7 per unit above 1,000

A. Block

B. List

C. Segmented

D. Tiered

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

A user needs to amend a contract and change prices to reflect new discounts for existing active subscriptions and assets.

How should the user achieve this?

A. Clone the Quote Lines which need to be updated. Modify the desired discounts on the cloned Quote Lines. Update the original Quote Lines to a Quantity of zero.

B. Create a Price Book with Price Book Entries to reflect the new prices. Populate the Contract Amendment Price Book ID field with the new Price Book ID to generate Amendment Lines with new prices.

C. Change the status of the contract to Draft. Make price changes on the original quote used to generate the contract and check Contracted on the Opportunity again.

D. Change the values for Net Price on the subscription or Price field on the asset. Amend the contract and use Refresh Prices.

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

Universal Containers must be able to create Quotes that contain Quote Lines with different Start Dates. Order Products must be separated into Orders after generation based in the Start Dates.

How can a CPQ Specialist meet this business requirement?

A. Separate Quotes must be created for each unique Start Date.

B. Set both the Order by Quote Line Group and Ordered checkboxes to True.

C. Change Default Order Start Date in CPQ Package settings to Quote Start Date.

D. Set the Order By picklist on the Quote to SBQQ__StartDate__c, and the Ordered checkbox to True.

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

An Admin at Universal Containers wants Configuration Attribute X to appear on the configuration page of bundle Y. The value selected will drive a Selection Product Rule, and will also be listed in a Line Item Column in the output document. On which objects will the Admin need to create the Configuration Attribute X custom field in order to meet his requirements?

A. Configuration Attribute and Product Option

B. Product Option and Quote

C. Configuration Attribute and Quote

D. Product Option and Quote Line

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

An Admin creates a Search Filter for Product Code that has a predefined Filter Value of Green and an operator of “starts with”.

If the Search Filter is visible, how can sales reps interact with the filter on the Product Selection screen?

A. Sales reps can replace the text, but are unable to leave the required field blank.

B. Sales reps can change the operator from “starts with” to “contains”.

C. Sales reps can see the filter, but are unable to alter the filter text.

D. Sales reps can delete the text to ignore the filter.

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

Universal Containers is rolling out a new version of its Premier Support offering named Premier Pro. The sales operation team wants to ensure that when a sales rep renew an existing Contract with Premier Support, it is replaced with Premier Pro.

What does the Admin need to do to support this business requirement?

A. Set the Renewal Product field on the Premier Support Product record to Premier Pro.

B. Create a Report of all Renewal Quotes with Premier Support Product and replace Quote Lines with Premier Pro.

C. Create a Price Rule to replace Premier Support Quote Lines with Premier Pro.

D. Set the upgrade Target field on the Premier Support Product record to Premier Pro.

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

A Lookup Query may return a value to only be used within a CPQ managed field.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

On a quote template, the Price line column has a template section “Price Line Items” defined. Which behavior will the Admin observe when generating the output document?

A. “Price” line column will not appear for Included or zero price items.

B. “Price” line column will appear in multiple line item sections.

C. “Price” line column will not appear for other line items sections.

D. “Price Line Items: section will show only the “Price” Line column.

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

The Admin at UC is creating a bundle and has a requirement for a Product Option to be unavailable for selection when certain conditions exist. The User should still see the Product Option, but should not be able to select it.

If a Product Rule is created to meet this requirement, what should the Type of the Product Action be?

A. Disable and Remove

B. Disable

C. Remove

D. Hide and Remove

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

Admins must create custom objects when leveraging:

A. Summary Variables

B. Lookup tables

C. Quote Templates

D. Amendments

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

Universal Containers requires that all users add at least one Product Option from the Maintenance Feature to a bundle. Additionally, users must select at least one and no more than two Product Options from the Support Feature.

How should the Admin set up these requirements for the users?

A. Set Min Options for Maintenance to one. Set Min Options to zero and Max Options to two for support.

B. Set Min Options for Maintenance to one. Set Min Options to one and Max Options to two for support.

C. Set Max Options for Maintenance to one. Set Min Options to zero and Max Options to two for support.

D. Set Min Options and Max Options to zero for Maintenance. Set Min Options to zero and Max Options to two for support.

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

A User creates a quote with these details: No subscription pricing products. Default Product record fields have not been altered. Renewal Model is Contract based. The Quote has been contracted. Which records will be generated?

A. Assets will be created on the opportunity for each product in the quote.

B. A contract will be generated with subscription for each product in the quote.

C. Assets will be created on the account for each product in the quote.

D. A contract will be generated with no subscriptions for each product in the quote.

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

Universal Containers sells a monthly subscription service that is offered to their clients with a ramp option. This subscription is priced with a setup fee, an installation fee, and a recurring fee. Which set of actions would meet these requirements?

A. Create three products to represent the setup fee, the installation fee and the monthly fee each with a monthly price dimension, and combine them into a bundle.

B. Create a single product with three monthly price dimensions

C. Create a single product with two one-time price dimensions and one monthly price dimension.

D. Create a single product with two monthly price dimensions and one one-time price dimension.

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

You recently made some changes to a project contract and the current status of the contract is Under Amendment. Identify the correct sequence of activities that can take place on that contract.

A. On Hold > Pending Approval > Active

B. On Hold > Pending Acceptance > Active

C. Pending Approval > Pending Acceptance > Active

D. Pending Acceptance > Pending Approval > Active

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cloud/latest/common/FASCC/FASCC1124283.htm


Question 2:

You create a contract with two contract lines: Line 1 and Line 2. You create separate bill plans: A for contract Line 1 and B for contract Line 2, with a different bill set number (11 for Bill Plan A and 22 for Bill Plan B). Then Bill Plan A is allocated against Project X – Task 10, and Bill Plan B is allocated against Project Y – Task 30.

Based on the preceding setup, you are generating invoices. Identify two correct statements about invoice generation in this scenario.

A. Invoice generation does not depend on bill plan. The invoices are created based on the contract line.

B. Both the contract lines create only a single invoice because they are using the same contract.

C. Two invoices are created using the same contract.

D. Bill set number drives the grouping of transactions.

Correct Answer: AC


Question 3:

As you go through the first-quarter close for your customer, you notice that the burden amounts calculated do not seem to be right. Based on the calculations, you notice that the amounts calculated are not considering the burden schedule override at a task level, which was done during the second month of the quarter.

Identify the reason for this problem.

A. You can enable automatic reprocessing of expenditure items processed before the burden schedule change.

B. Only new expenditure items charged to the task use the new burden schedule; expenditure items processed earlier cannot be reprocessed.

C. All expenditure items charged to the task use the new burden schedule.

D. Only new expenditure items charged to the task use the new burden schedule; expenditure items processed earlier can be manually marked for reprocessing.

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cloud/r13_update17b/projectcs_gs/OAPJC/OAPJC1071490.htm#OAPJC1071482


Question 4:

You cannot generate invoices for a project expenditure item. After running the Generate Invoices program for a billable expenditure item and active contract, the process completes successfully but without any billing, and does not provide any error logs. The program\’s processing summary is as follows: Billing Event Errors 0 Ineligible Contracts 0 Successful Billing Events Created 0 Ineligible Contract Lines 0 Billing Transaction Exception Warnings 0 Ineligible Associated Projects 0 Draft Invoice Exception Errors 0 Ineligible Events 0 Draft Invoice Exception Warnings 0 Successful Draft Invoices 0

What was the invoice method classification set to that caused this behavior?

A. Amount Based

B. Percent Complete

C. Rate Based

D. As Incurred

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E51367_01/projectop_gs/OAPJB/F1087458AN139C2.htm


Question 5:

Your business user has created a purchase order (PO) that has the following attributes:

Accrue at Receipt = Yes

Matching Option = 2 way

Receipt Close Tolerance = 100%

After approval, the PO is closed for receiving without creating a receipt. An AP invoice is created by matching to the PO. The user now runs Create Accounting for Receiving Transactions and then the “Import and Process Cost transactions”

ESS (Enterprise Scheduler Service) job using the Transaction Source parameter as “Oracle Payables.” The user notices that there is no cost transferred to the projects.

Identify two reasons for this problem.

A. When you have an AP invoice that is matched against a PO with Accrue at Receipt set to YES, cost is transferred to projects by Cost Management and not by Payables.

B. When you have an AP invoice that is matched against a PO with Accrue at Receipt set to NO, cost is transferred to projects by receipt accounting.

C. When you have an AP invoice that is matched against a PO with Accrue at Receipt set to YES, cost is transferred to projects only if there are accounted receipt lines.

D. When you have an AP invoice that is matched against a PO with Accrue at Receipt set to YES, cost is transferred to project by Payables.

Correct Answer: BC


Question 6:

Your customer wants to automatically allocate unassigned asset lines and common costs across multiple assets based on the construction-in-process cost of each asset.

Identify the asset allocation method that you must use as the default method while configuring project types to meet this requirement.

A. Estimated Cost

B. Standard Unit Cost

C. Current Cost

D. Spread Evenly

E. Actual Unit

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cloud/farel9/projectcs_gs/OAPJC/F1071495AN175A1.htm


Question 7:

Which three Cost Collection Flexfield core attributes can be derived during import if not explicitly entered in a transaction document?

A. Work Type

B. Capitalizable Flag

C. Billable Flag

D. Expenditure Type

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 8:

Your customer has the following setups on the project plan type that they are using for their projects: Use Task Planned Dates as Task Assignment Dates = Yes Automatically Roll Up Task Planned Dates = Yes Synchronize Task Transaction Dates with Planned Dates = No

With these setups in place, you perform the following actions:

1.

Create a new subtask (Sub Task 1) with a start date of 15-Jun-2016 on the project that has as start date of 01-Jul-2016.

2.

Create another new subtask (Sub Task 2) after the previous action is saved. What would the correct behavior of the application be after these actions?

A. After the creation and saving of Sub Task 1, Task Start Date would be changed to 01-Jul-2016 and Sub Task 2 would be created with 01-Jul-2016.

B. After the creation of Sub Task 1, Project Start Date would remain unchanged as 01-Jul-2016 and Sub Task 2 would be created with 15-Jun-2016.

C. Project Start Date would remain unchanged as 01-Jul-2016 for both actions but the start dates on both subtasks would remain 15-Jun-2016.

D. After the creation of Sub Task 1, Project Start Date would be changed to 15-Jun-2016 and Sub Task 2 would be created with 15-Jun-2016.

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

While creating a new project template, you notice that a default Asset Cost Allocation method is being automatically associated. Identify the source setup from which the default value is being inherited.

A. project organization

B. project type

C. project unit

D. project classification

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cloud/farel10/projectcs_gs/OAPJC/OAPJC1071495.htm#OAPJC220111 (asset cost allocation methods: explained)


Question 10:

You have defined two expenditure types but they are not available for selection when you enter an expenditure batch. Identify the reason for this problem.

A. The two expenditure types are not assigned to the reference data set that is assigned to the project-owning organization in which the transaction is performed.

B. The two expenditure types are not assigned to the reference data set that is assigned to the business unit in which the transaction is performed.

C. The two expenditure types are not assigned to the reference data set that is assigned to the project unit in which the transaction is performed.

D. The two expenditure types are not assigned to the reference data set that is assigned to the project expenditure organization in which the transaction is performed.

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

Which three of the project DFF attributes can you use to capture additional project information?

A. Independent

B. Number of field workers

C. Internal Project Category

D. Launch Date

E. Integer

Correct Answer: BCD

Reference: https://www.oracle.com/webfolder/technetwork/tutorials/tutorial/cloud/r12/wn/r12-ppm-wn.htm


Question 12:

After completing setups in a source environment, your customer wants to move the setup data to a target environment.

Identify the two statements related to task list scope, which you must consider before taking a decision based on the customer requirement.

A. A scope value is used to assign users who can perform a task within an implementation project.

B. Exported setup data can be filtered by specific scope values if the business object has scope enabled for the setup data export.

C. Exported setup data cannot be filtered by specific scope values if the business object has scope enabled for the setup data export.

D. A task list can be segmented by a scope value and a task can be performed for each qualifying value of the selected object.

Correct Answer: BD

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E60665_01/common/OAFSM/OAFSM1166430.htm#OAFSM1166426


Question 13:

You search for resources to fulfill a project resource request but are unable to proceed after receiving the following error message: “The search for resources cannot be completed because the project resource search index is not available. Contact your help desk.” Identify the cause for this error message.

A. The index has been built.

B. The most recent update of the index finished successfully.

C. The index is not in the process.

D. The index is in the process of being updated.

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

Which three are part of using the Rapid Implementation for Project Financial Management Applications macro-enabled Microsoft Excel spreadsheet to enter setup data?

A. Upload setup data.

B. Generate CSV files.

C. Import Projects.

D. File Import and Export.

E. Prepare setup data.

Correct Answer: ABE

References: https://docs.oracle.com/applications/farel12/projectop_gs/OAPFM/OAPFM2264569.htm#OAPFM2159921


Question 15:

You want to export your project plan to Oracle Project Financial Management Cloud after initial scheduling is complete in Microsoft Projects. Identify three conditions that must be met for exporting milestone tasks.

A. only one labor resource assignment with 0 effort

B. lowest-level tasks set up with zero duration

C. lowest-level tasks set up with non-zero duration

D. percent work complete values of 0 or 100 percent

E. only one labor resource assignment with 100 effort

Correct Answer: ABD

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cloud/latest/projectcs_gs/OAPEX/OAPEX1082602.htm#OAPEX2161139


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Question 1:

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A. VNC

B. KDE

C. X11

D. RPC

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.sfu.ca/computing/about/support/tips/remote-to-linux-with-gui.html


Question 2:

A technical support engineer receives a ticket from a user who is trying to create a 1KB file in the /tmp directory and is getting the following error: No space left on device. The support engineer checks the /tmp directory, and it has 20GB of free space.

Which of the following BEST describes a possible cause for this error?

A. The /tmp directory is not mounted.

B. The filesystem is formatted with a 4MB block size.

C. the filesystem ran out of inodes.

D. The /tmp directory has been set with an immutable attribute.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.maketecheasier.com/fix-linux-no-space-left-on-device-error/


Question 3:

Which of the following is the BEST reason for not storing database files in the /var directory?

A. The /var filesystem is not fast enough for database files.

B. The number of files in /var is limited by the available inodes.

C. Files in /var do not have strict file permissions.

D. If log files fill up /var, it might corrupt the database.

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

An administrator receives a warning about a filesystem filling up, and then identifies a large file located at / tmp/largelogfile. The administrator deletes the file, but no space is recovered on the filesystem.

Which of the following commands would BEST assists the administrator in identifying the problem?

A. lsof | grep largelogfile

B. pkill /tmp/largelogfile

C. pgrep largelogfile

D. ps -ef | grep largelogfile

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://access.redhat.com/solutions/2316


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Which of the following can be used to boot a DVD from a remote device to initialize a Linux system setup on bare metal hardware as if it is a local DVD?

A. UEFI

B. PXE

C. NFS

D. GRUB

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://access.redhat.com/documentation/en-us/red_hat_enterprise_linux/6/html/ installation_guide/ch-boot-x86


Question 6:

After starting a long-running script, a systems administrator needs to verify the frequency of what is filling up the /var partition and kill it because it is consuming too much space.

Which of the following is the correct sequence given only a terminal is available?

A. 1. CTRL-C

2.

bg

3.

watch df /var

4.

CTRL-C

5.

fg

6.

CTRL-Z

B. 1. CTRL-C

2.

fg

3.

watch df /var

4.

CTRL-Z

5.

bg

6.

CTRL-Z

C. 1. CTRL-Z

2.

bg

3.

watch df /var

4.

CTRL-C

5.

fg

6.

CTRL-C

D. 1. CTRL-Z

2.

bg

3.

watch df /var

4.

CTRL-Z

5.

fg

6.

CTRL-C

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

A Linux administrator must identify a user with high disk usage. The administrator runs the # du -s / home/* command and gets the following output:

Based on the output, User3 has the largest amount of disk space used. To clean up the file space, the administrator needs to find out more information about the specific files that are using the most disk space.

Which of the following commands will accomplish this task?

A. df -k /home/User3/files.txt

B. du -a /home/User3/*

C. du -sh /home/User/

D. find . -name /home/User3 -print

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://unix.stackexchange.com/questions/37221/finding-files-that-use-the-most-disk-space


Question 8:

A Linux server has multiple IPs. A Linux administrator needs to verify if the HTTP server port is bound to the correct IP. Which of the following commands would BEST accomplish this task?

A. route

B. host

C. nslookup

D. netstat

E. ip

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.tecmint.com/find-listening-ports-linux/


Question 9:

A systems administrator needs to append output of ls -lha /opt command to the contents of a test.txt file. Which of the following commands will accomplish this?

A. ls -lha /opt > test.txt

B. ls -lha /opt < test.txt

C. ls -lha /opt >> test.txt

D. ls -lha /opt << test.txt

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.cyberciti.biz/faq/linux-append-text-to-end-of-file/


Question 10:

A Linux administrator needs to remotely update the contents of the www.comptia.org/contacts URL.

Which of the following commands would allow the administrator to download the current contents of the URL before updating?

A. curl www.comptia.org/contacts

B. dig www.comptia.org/contacts

C. apt-get www.comptia.org/contacts

D. yum list www.comptia.org/contacts

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.thegeekstuff.com/2012/04/curl-examples/


Question 11:

Which of the following BEST describes containers running on a Linux system?

A. Containers only need the namespaces functionality to run on a Linux system available since kernel 2.6.

B. Containers need a hypervisor to run on a Linux system. Cgroups namespaces are functionalities used for the kernel but not for running containers.

C. Containers only need the cgroups functionality for running on a Linux system. Namespaces is not a Linux kernel functionality needed for creating and managing containers.

D. Containers use the cgroups and namespaces functionalities to isolate processes and assign hardware resources to each of those isolated processes.

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.linuxjournal.com/content/everything-you-need-know-about-linux-containers-part-ii- working-linux-containers-lxc


Question 12:

A networked has been crashing intermittently. A Linux administrator would like to write a shell script that will attempt to ping the server and email an alert if the server fails to respond. The script will later be scheduled via cron job.

Which of the following scripts would BEST accomplish this task?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

A Linux administrator is testing connectivity to a remote host on a shared terminal. The administrator wants to allow other users to access the terminal while the command is executing.

Which of the following commands should the administrator use?

A. bg ping remotehost

B. fg ping remotehost

C. ping remotehost < results

D. ping remotehost and

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

A Linux administrator needs to switch from text mode to GUI. Which of the following runlevels will start the GUI by default?

A. Runlevel 3

B. Runlevel 4

C. Runlevel 5

D. Runlevel 6

Correct Answer: C

Reference: http://www.linfo.org/runlevel_def.html


Question 15:

A junior systems administrator is configuring localization option environment variables. The administrator is given a checklist of tasks with the following requirements:

1.

View current settings of the LC_ALL environment variable only.

2.

Modify the LANG environment variable to US English Unicode.

Given this scenario, which of the following should be performed to meet these requirements? (Choose two.)

A. echo $LC_ALL

B. locale

C. cat $LC_ALL

D. export LANG = en_US.UTF-8

E. export $LANG = en_US.UTF

F. stty

Correct Answer: BD

Reference: https://www.tecmint.com/set-system-locales-in-linux/


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Question 1:

By default, each ESXi 6.x host is provisioned with a certificate from which root certificate authority?

A. RedHat Certificate Authority

B. VMware Certificate Authority

C. DigiCert Certificate Authority

D. Verisign Certificate Authority

Correct Answer: B

In vSphere 6.0 and later, the VMware Certificate Authority (VMCA) provisions your environment with certificates. This includes machine SSL certificates for secure connections, solution user certificates for authentication to vCenter Single Sign-On, and certificates for ESX hosts that are added to vCenter Server. Reference https://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-60/index.jsp?topic=/com.vmware.vsphere.security.doc/GUID-3AF7757E-A30E-4EEC-8A41-28DA72102520.html


Question 2:

Which vSphere 6 Standard Edition feature will allow an organization to ensure that critical multi-threaded applications have the maximum possible uptime?

A. Fault Tolerance

B. High Availability

C. Distributed Resource Scheduler

D. App HA

Correct Answer: B

High availability is a permanent feature of vSphere 6 standard edition and it allows critical multi-threaded applications to get maximum possible uptime.


Question 3:

Which vSphere 6.x feature will allow an organization to utilize native snapshots?

A. Virtual Volumes

B. Virtual SAN

C. VMFS3

D. VMFS5

Correct Answer: A

Virtual Volumes has the following characteristics:

Virtual Volumes supports offloading a number of operations to storage hardware. These operations include snapshotting, cloning, and Storage DRS.

With Virtual Volumes, you can use advanced storage services that include replication, encryption, deduplication, and compression on individual virtual disks.

Virtual Volumes supports such vSphere features as vMotion, Storage vMotion, snapshots, linked clones, Flash Read Cache, and DRS.

With Virtual Volumes, storage vendors can use native snapshot facilities to improve performance of vSphere snapshots.

You can use Virtual Volumes with storage arrays that support vSphere APIs for Array Integration (VAAI).

Virtual Volumes supports backup software that uses vSphere APIs for Data Protection (VADP).

Reference https://kb.vmware.com/selfservice/microsites/search.do?language=en_USandcmd=displayKCandexternalId=2113013


Question 4:

Which two components can be used when configuring Enhanced Linked Mode? (Choose two.)

A. vCenter Server Appliance

B. vRealize Operations Manager

C. vSphere Management Appliance

D. vCenter Server for Windows

Correct Answer: AD

With Enhanced Linked Mode, you can connect not only vCenter Server systems running on Windows but also many vCenter Server Appliances. You can also have an environment where multiple vCenter Server systems and vCenter Server Appliances are linked together. Reference: https://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-60/index.jsp?topic=/com.vmware.vsphere.install.doc/GUID-91EF7282-C45A-4E48-ADB0-5A4230A91FF2.html


Question 5:

What is the effective vSphere licensing level during the 60 day evaluation period?

A. vSphere Foundation Essentials Plus

B. vSphere Standard

C. vSphere Enterprise

D. vSphere Enterprise Plus

Correct Answer: D

The evaluation mode provides the set of features equal to a vSphere Enterprise Plus license. Before the evaluation mode expires, you must assign to your hosts a license that supports all the features in use.

Reference: https://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-55/index.jsp?topic=/com.vmware.vsphere.upgrade.doc/GUID-17862A54-C1D4-47A9-88AA-2A1A32602BC6.html


Question 6:

What component must be installed prior to deploying a vCenter Server in vSphere 6.x?

A. vCenter Identity Services

B. Platform Services Controller

C. vCenter Single Sign-On

D. Client Integration Plug-In

Correct Answer: B

You have to install Platform services controller before deploying vcenter server in vSphere 6.x Reference: https://kb.vmware.com/selfservice/microsites/search.do?language=en_USandcmd=displayKCandexternalId=2107948


Question 7:

An administrator deploys vCenter Server using the embedded Platform Services Controller. After testing the deployment for a couple of months, it is determined that the environment would be better served with an external Platform Services Controller.

What should the administrator do to meet this new requirement?

A. Deploy a fresh instance of vCenter Server with an external Platform Services Controller.

B. Perform a fresh install of an external Platform Services Controller.

C. Migrate the embedded Platform Services Controller to an external Platform Services Controller.

D. Upgrade the embedded Platform Services Controller to an external Platform Services Controller.

Correct Answer: D

To meet the requirement, upgrade the embedded platform services controller to an external platform services controller Reference: https://kb.vmware.com/selfservice/microsites/search.do?language=en_USandcmd=displayKCandexternalId=2113115


Question 8:

After installation of a host in your test environment, you need to move it to production. The only major change that needs to be made is that the hostname of the server needs to change. What are two ways that an administrator can change the host name without editing configuration files on the host directly? (Choose two.)

A. Login to the Direct Console User Interface and change it from here.

B. Edit the Default TCP/IP Configuration from the vSphere Web Client.

C. Use the Ruby vSphere Client to send a script to the ESXi host that updates the hostname.

D. Update the information in DNS and the ESXi host will automatically update with these changes.

Correct Answer: AB

To change the host name without editing configuration files on the host, first, login to the direct console user interface and change the host name. Now edit the default TCP/IP configuration from the vSphere client. Reference: http://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-60/index.jsp


Question 9:

You have just installed an ESXi 6.x Host. As part of your company security regulations, a security banner must be presented on the console of the host. How can this action be accomplished?

A. Configure the Advanced Settings > Annotations screen of the ESXi host.

B. This is configured from the Direct Console User Interface configuration menu.

C. It is not possible to configure a security banner for the ESXi host.

D. From vCenter Server, this setting is configured globally in the vCenter Server configuration.

Correct Answer: A

For security banner, configure Advanced settings and go to Annotations screen of the ESXi host.

Reference: https://kb.vmware.com/selfservice/microsites/search.do?language=en_USandcmd=displayKCandexternalId=2046347


Question 10:

An administrator is performing an interactive installation of ESXi 6.x. Which three options are available for installation? (Choose three.)

A. DVD

B. USB

C. PXE

D. Scripted

E. Auto Deploy

Correct Answer: ABC

You can install ESXi 6.x using DVD drive, USB flash drive or PXE.

Reference: https://kb.vmware.com/selfservice/microsites/search.do?language=en_USandcmd=displayKCandexternalId=2109708


Question 11:

An administrator has recently installed a new ESXi 6.x Host, and during the configuration notices sporadic network problems. To check whether the issue occurred sometime during the configuration, the administrator would like to reset the system.

How can this be accomplished in the shortest amount of time?

A. Run the ESXi installer again and reinstall the host.

B. Select the Reset System Configuration option from the vSphere Client when connected directly to the host.

C. From the Direct Console User Interface, select Reset System Configuration.

D. Use a host profile to reset the configuration to a default state.

Correct Answer: C

This DCUI interface offers the following:

Configure Root password Configure Lockdown mode Configure Management network Restart Management Network Test or disable Management Configure Keyboard View Support Information View System Logs Restart Management Network Reset System Configuration Remove Custom Extensions Shutdown or Restart /Reboot the ESXi Server

Reference: http://www.virtualizationadmin.com/articles-tutorials/vmware-esx-and-vsphere-articles/installation-and-deployment/understanding-vmware-esxi-direct-console-user-interface-dcui.html


Question 12:

How are ports scaled on vSphere Standard Switches (vSS)?

A. Ports on a vSS can be dynamically scaled up and down.

B. Ports on a vSS can only be statically scaled up or down.

C. Ports on a vSS can only be dynamically scaled down.

D. Ports on a vSS can only be dynamically scaled up.

Correct Answer: A

To ensure efficient use of host resources on hosts running ESXi 5.5 and later, the number of ports of standard switches are dynamically scaled up and down. A standard switch on such a host can expand up to the maximum number of ports supported on the host. Reference: https://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-60/index.jsp?topic=/com.vmware.vsphere.networking.doc/GUID-350344DE-483A-42ED-B0E2-C811EE927D59.html


Question 13:

During a new vSphere Distributed Switch configuration, where does the Maximum Transmission Unit (MTU) value get modified?

A. Uplink Settings

B. Switch Settings

C. Portgroup Settings

D. NIC Teaming Settings

Correct Answer: B

You can modify MTU values in switch settings.

Reference: https://kb.vmware.com/selfservice/microsites/search.do?language=en_US&cmd=displayKC&externalId=1010557


Question 14:

Which load balancing policy, previously limited to vSphere Distributed Switches, is now available on vSphere Standard Switches with vSphere 6.x?

A. Route based on physical NIC workload

B. Route based on IP Hash

C. Route based on the originating virtual port

D. Route based on Source MAC Hash

Correct Answer: A

Route based on physical NIC workload was limited to vSphere Distributed switches. Now its available on vSphere standard switches with vSphere 6.x

Reference: https://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-60/topic/com.vmware.ICbase/PDF/vsphere-esxi-vcenter-server-60-networking-guide.pdf


Question 15:

Which two networking connection types can be configured on a virtual switch? (Choose two.)

A. Virtual machine portgroups

B. VMkernel services (such as NFS, iSCSI, or vMotion) to the physical network

C. Web services over the Management Network

D. NFS and FCoE storage services

Correct Answer: AB

Virtual machine portgroups and Vmkernel services can be configured on a virtual switch. Reference: https://www.vmware.com/files/pdf/virtual_networking_concepts.pdf


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Question 1:

What objects are configured to define the item types or document classes that will be used for ICC email Search?

A. Search collection files

B. Archive mapping and search configuration files

C. Search template and form files

D. Archive itemtype and class templates

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

When configuring a task in the Configuration Manager, where is the task route displayed?

A. In the design pane

B. In the configuration pane

C. In the explore pane

D. In the task route pane

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

Which of the following is a repository supported by ICC for email archiving?

A. Commonstore

B. Email Manager

C. FileNet P8 Content Engine

D. FileNet Image Services

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

Where in the ICC Configuration Manager, is the Task Route Service Configuration?

A. In all the task configurations

B. In the Tools menu item

C. In Navigation, under Task Routes

D. In the Task Route Engine

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

Which of the following is NOT a valid task for a File System archiving task route?

A. FSC Collector

B. FSC Extract Metadata

C. FSC Associate Metadata

D. FSC Post Processing

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

What object in Configuration Manager is required to store the ICC configuration and data?

A. A metadata definition

B. A connection to a data store

C. A P8 class or Content Manager 8 itemtype

D. A web application

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

Starting what ICC service will also start all other ICC connector services?

A. ICC Task Routing Engine

B. ICC E-Mail Connector

C. ICC Utility Connector

D. ICC Startup Service

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

What is a best practice for creating task routes?

A. Create the task routes from scratch to prevent duplication

B. Use the sample task routes to create new task routes

C. Always use de-duplication

D. Always collect data from local data sources

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

What is the function of an ICC Collector?

A. Provides an interface to a source system to filter and schedule data retrieval

B. Provides a connection to 3rd Party Software as a content source

C. Provides a connection to 3rd Party Software as a text extraction service

D. Provides a means to collect data for ICC performance monitoring

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

Where is the ICC configuration information stored?

A. In the repository

B. In the Configuration Manager

C. In the local file system D. In a database

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

When installing ICC for Exchange email archiving, what application must be installed on the ICC server?

A. P8

B. Content Manager 8

C. Exchange

D. Outlook

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

What type of metadata must be defined to enable manual collection of additional archiving information for email?

A. Email

B. File-system

C. System

D. User-defined

Correct Answer: D