TS: Windows 7 and Office 2010, Deploying Free Practice Questions

You are using Windows Deployment Services (WDS) to deploy Windows 7 to your companys client computers.
All servers in your network run Windows Server 2008 R2. The WDS server and the DHCP server are running on the same computer.
You need to ensure that the client computers are able to connect to the WDS server by using PXE.
What should you do first?

  • A. Add option 60 to the DHCP scope.
  • B. Add option 64 to the DHCP scope.
  • C. Block WDS from listening on port 60.
  • D. Block WDS from listening on port 64.

Answer : A

Explanation:
http://www.markwilson.co.uk/blog/2004/03/configuring-dhcp-option-60-for-pxe.htm

You are preparing for a deployment of Windows 7.
You need to perform this deployment without network connectivity to the client computers.
What should you do?

  • A. Burn your image to DVD in .iso format, insert the DVD into a target computer, and use PXE boot.
  • B. Burn your image to DVD in .iso format, insert the DVD into a target computer, and bypass the PXE boot.
  • C. Burn your image to DVD in .wim format, insert the DVD into a target computer, and use PXE boot.
  • D. Burn your image to DVD in .wim format, insert the DVD into a target computer, and bypass the PXE boot.

Answer : B

You are deploying Windows 7 Professional to all client computers in your company. The company uses Volume Licensing for all Windows operating systems. Different physical locations in the company require different Volume License Keys. You are creating unattended installation answer files for the Windows 7 deployments.You need to ensure that the correct Volume License Key is added to the appropriate configuration pass during the Windows 7 deployments.To which configuration pass of Windows Setup should you add the Volume License Key?

  • A. windowsPE
  • B. generalize
  • C. specialize
  • D. oobeSystem

Answer : C

Explanation:The generalize configuration pass of Windows Setup is used to create a Windows reference image that can be used throughout an organization. Settings in the generalize configuration pass enable you to automate the behavior for all deployments of this reference image. In comparison, settings applied in the specialize Configuration Pass configuration pass enable you to override behavior for a single, specific deployment. http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd744392(WS.10).aspx

You are preparing for a Zero Touch Installation (ZTI) of Windows 7 using System Center
Configuration Manager 2007 R2. You create a base image.
You need to add a third-party .msi installer to run during deployment.
What should you do?

  • A. Add a task to the task sequence.
  • B. Use Group Policy to configure the application to install.
  • C. Deploy the image, install the application, and then recapture the image.
  • D. Mount the image by using ImageX, and configure the application to deploy upon first user login.

Answer : A

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Specialist – Implementation Engineer, VxRail Appliance Exam Free Practice Questions

Which block of IP addresses that is provided by the user to the VxRail Initialization wizard may contain non-contiguous addresses?

  • A. NTP Servers
  • B. ESXi Host
  • C. vSAN
  • D. vSphere vMotion

Answer : A

An existing Dell EMC customer wants to deploy a new VxRail cluster on premise. Each node of the new cluster will be configured with a single disk group containing one 1.6 TB Flash drive for the capacity tier. The customer plans on using mirroring and needs to have at least 2 TB of usable capacity in the vSAN datastore.
What is the minimum number of VxRail nodes required?

  • A. 2
  • B. 3
  • C. 4
  • D. 5

Answer : A

A customer requires a VxRail Stretched Cluster with E560F nodes in its minimal configuration. In addition, the cluster should be able to use both erasure coding options.Which setup fulfills the requirement?

  • A. 3+3 nodes
  • B. 4+4 nodes
  • C. 6+6 nodes
  • D. 8+8 nodes

Answer : B

Which vSAN license is included with VxRail?

  • A. vSAN Enterprise
  • B. vSAN for ROBO
  • C. vSAN Advanced
  • D. vSAN Standard

Answer : A

Reference:
https://inside-the-rails.com/2018/12/22/vxrail-4-7-now-with-flexible-vsan-licensing/

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FileMaker8 Developer Essentials Exam Free Practice Questions

What are three values you can retrieve using a Get() function? (Choose three.)

  • A. the name of the active window
  • B. the list of users logged into the file
  • C. the password of the logged-in user
  • D. the state of the Omit check box when in Find mode
  • E. the absolute path to the desktop directory for the current user

Answer : A,D,E

Which three are required to get XML data, using a Web browser, from a database hosted by FileMaker Server 8 Advanced? (Choose three.)

  • A. a query string in an HTTP URL request
  • B. the FMPDSORESULT or fmresultset grammar
  • C. at least one account with the fmxml extended privilege assigned to its privilege set
  • D. XML Publishing enabled in the Web Publishing Administration Console
  • E. the Export Records [FMPDSORESULT] or Export Records [FMPXMLRESULT] script step included in a script set to run when the database opens

Answer : A,C,D

Which two must be configured for a Web Publishing Engine to interact with a specificFileMaker server? (Choose two.)

  • A. the Web server\’s IP address in the FileMaker Server Administration Tool
  • B. the Web Publishing Engine IP address in the FileMaker Server Administration Tool
  • C. the Web Publishing Engine identifier and passcode in the FileMaker Server Administration Tool
  • D. the FileMaker server\’s IP address or host name and Web Publishing Engine identifier in the Web Publishing Administration Console

Answer : C,D

Given a FileMaker Pro 8 database with this script:
Perform Find [Restore]
#Find restores criteria: Customer::City: [XXXX]

Refresh Window –
If [Get ( LastError )]
Show Custom Dialog [\”No records found\”; \”No records matched your find criteria.\”]

End If –
Which two statements are true if there are no records where the Customer::City field contains \”XXXX\”? (Choose two.)

  • A. The user will see a default FileMaker error dialog stating that no records match this set of find requests.
  • B. Adding a Set Error Capture [On] step to the beginning of the script will suppress the custom dialog.
  • C. Adding a Set Error Capture [On] step to the beginning of the script has no effect on whether or not the custom dialog displays its error message.
  • D. Adding a Set Error Capture [On] step to the beginning of the script causes the FileMaker Pro 8 error dialog to display and then the custom dialog will display its error message.

Answer : A,C

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VMware Cloud on AWS – Master Services Competency Specialist Exam 2019 Free Practice Questions

At which point is a readiness assessment recommended?

  • A. After the VMware Cloud on AWS SDDC is deployed.
  • B. During the VMware Cloud on AWS SDDC deployment.
  • C. Before the VMware Cloud on AWS SDDC is deployed.
  • D. Once the VMware Cloud on AWS SDDC is already configured.

Answer : C

Reference:
https://www.presidio.com/file?id=1319

Which two statements describe the standard single-site topology for VMware Cloud on AWS DRaaS? (Choose two.)

  • A. Multiple remote sites that could be configured each to recover to individual VMware Cloud on AWS SDDCs.
  • B. Multiple remote sites that could be configured each to recover to a single shared VMware Cloud on AWS SDDC.
  • C. A single shared remote site that could be configured to recover to multiple shared VMware Cloud on AWS SDDCs.
  • D. A single remote site that could be configured to recover to a single VMware Cloud on AWS SDDC.
  • E. A single shared VMware Cloud on AWS SDDC that could be configured to recover to multiple VMware Cloud on AWS SDDCs.

Answer : BE

What are three pre-requisites for utilizing VMware Site Recovery? (Choose three.)

  • A. vSphere 6.0, Update 3 or higher at the protected site
  • B. A maximum supported latency between regions of 150 milliseconds
  • C. A Layer 2 stretched network connection between on-premises and VMware Cloud on AWS
  • D. Sufficient VMware Site Recovery Manager licenses to protect the desired amount of virtual machines
  • E. VMware Cloud on AWS VPC running in an AWS location with a minimum of three availability zones
  • F. A Layer 3 network connection between the on-premises data center and the cloud SDDC

Answer : ADF

What are two constructs within the managed services platform (MSP) for partners? (Choose two.)

  • A. Tenant Organization
  • B. Master Organization
  • C. Partner Organization
  • D. Global Organization
  • E. Provider Organization

Answer : AB

Reference:
https://blogs.vmware.com/cloudprovider/2018/03/boarding-vmware-cloud-aws-vcpp-partners.html

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Zend Certified PHP Engineer Free Practice Questions

Which PHP function is used to validate whether the contents of
$_FILES[\’name\’][\’tmp_name\’] have really been uploaded via HTTP, and also save the contents into another folder?

Answer : move_uploaded_file(), move_uploaded_file

SimpleXML provides the ability to iterate over items in an XML document, as well as access items within it as if they were object properties. When creating your own classes to access data, implementing which of the following would NOT achieve this goal?

  • A. __toString
  • B. Iterator
  • C. __get/__set
  • D. ArrayAccess

Answer : A

How should class MyObject be defined for the following code to work properly? Assume$array is an array and MyObject is a user-defined class.$obj = new MyObject();array_walk($array, $obj);

  • A. MyObject should extend class Closure
  • B. MyObject should implement interface Callable
  • C. MyObject should implement method __call
  • D. MyObject should implement method __invoke

Answer : D

What is the output of the following code?
class Test {
public function __call($name, $args)
call_user_func_array(array(\’static\’, \”test$name\”), $args);
public function testS($l) {
echo \”$l,\”;
class Test2 extends Test {
public function testS($l) {
echo \”$l,$l,\”;
$test = new Test2();
$test->S(\’A\’);

  • A. A,
  • B. A,A,
  • C. A,A,A,
  • D. PHP Warning: call_user_func_array() expects parameter 1 to be a valid callback

Answer : B

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Certified Information Privacy Technologist (CIPT) Free Practice Questions

What must be used in conjunction with disk encryption?

  • A. Increased CPU speed.
  • B. A strong password.
  • C. A digital signature.
  • D. Export controls.

Answer : C

SCENARIO –
It should be the most secure location housing data in all of Europe, if not the world. The Global Finance Data Collective (GFDC) stores financial information and other types of client data from large banks, insurance companies, multinational corporations and governmental agencies. After a long climb on a mountain road that leads only to the facility, you arrive at the security booth. Your credentials are checked and checked again by the guard to visually verify that you are the person pictured on your passport and national identification card. You are led down a long corridor with server rooms on each side, secured by combination locks built into the doors. You climb a flight of stairs and are led into an office that is lighted brilliantly by skylights where the GFDC Director of Security, Dr. Monique
Batch, greets you. On the far wall you notice a bank of video screens showing different rooms in the facility. At the far end, several screens show different sections of the road up the mountain
Dr. Batch explains once again your mission. As a data security auditor and consultant, it is a dream assignment: The GFDC does not want simply adequate controls, but the best and most effective security that current technologies allow.
ג€We were hacked twice last year,ג€ Dr. Batch says, ג€and although only a small number of records were stolen, the bad press impacted our business. Our clients count on us to provide security that is nothing short of impenetrable and to do so quietly. We hope to never make the news again.ג€ She notes that it is also essential that the facility is in compliance with all relevant security regulations and standards.
You have been asked to verify compliance as well as to evaluate all current security controls and security measures, including data encryption methods, authentication controls and the safest methods for transferring data into and out of the facility. As you prepare to begin your analysis, you find yourself considering an intriguing question: Can these people be sure that I am who I say I am?
You are shown to the office made available to you and are provided with system login information, including the name of the wireless network and a wireless key.
Still pondering, you attempt to pull up the facility\’s wireless network, but no networks appear in the wireless list. When you search for the wireless network by name, however it is readily found.
Why would you recommend that GFC use record encryption rather than disk, file or table encryption?

  • A. Record encryption is asymmetric, a stronger control measure.
  • B. Record encryption is granular, limiting the damage of potential breaches.
  • C. Record encryption involves tag masking, so its metadata cannot be decrypted
  • D. Record encryption allows for encryption of personal data only.

Answer : B

What is an example of a just-in-time notice?

  • A. A warning that a website may be unsafe.
  • B. A full organizational privacy notice publicly available on a website
  • C. A credit card company calling a user to verify a purchase before it is authorized
  • D. Privacy information given to a user when he attempts to comment on an online article.

Answer : D

Reference:https://www.clarip.com/data-privacy/just-time-notices/

SCENARIO –
Wesley Energy has finally made its move, acquiring the venerable oil and gas exploration firm Lancelot from its long-time owner David Wilson. As a member of the transition team, you have come to realize that Wilson\’s quirky nature affected even Lancelot\’s data practices, which are maddeningly inconsistent. ג€The old man hired and fired IT people like he was changing his necktie,ג€ one of Wilsonג€™s seasoned lieutenants tells you, as you identify the traces of initiatives left half complete.
For instance, while some proprietary data and personal information on clients and employees is encrypted, other sensitive information, including health information from surveillance testing of employees for toxic exposures, remains unencrypted, particularly when included within longer records with less-sensitive data. You also find that data is scattered across applications, servers and facilities in a manner that at first glance seems almost random.
Among your preliminary findings of the condition of data at Lancelot are the following:
✑ Cloud technology is supplied by vendors around the world, including firms that you have not heard of. You are told by a former Lancelot employee that these vendors operate with divergent security requirements and protocols.
✑ The companyג€™s proprietary recovery process for shale oil is stored on servers among a variety of less-sensitive information that can be accessed not only by scientists, but by personnel of all types at most company locations.
✑ DES is the strongest encryption algorithm currently used for any file.
✑ Several company facilities lack physical security controls, beyond visitor check-in, which familiar vendors often bypass.
✑ Fixing all of this will take work, but first you need to grasp the scope of the mess and formulate a plan of action to address it.
Which procedure should be employed to identify the types and locations of data held by Wesley Energy?

  • A. Privacy audit.
  • B. Log collection
  • C. Data inventory.
  • D. Data classification.

Answer : C

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ISTQB Certified Tester Advanced Level – Test Manager Free Practice Questions

Model characteristics:
Which THREE of the below mentioned characteristics relate to TMMi? 1 credit

  • A. 5 maturity levels
  • B. Focussed on higher level testing
  • C. 20 key areas
  • D. Highly related to CMMI
  • E. Continuous model
  • F. Staged model
  • G. Focussed on component and integration testing
  • H. Is build around 12 critical testing processes

Answer : A,D,F

In general which part of the testing activity is most difficult to estimate? 1 credit

  • A. Test planning
  • B. Test execution
  • C. Test management
  • D. Test design

Answer : B

Instead of having an independent test team within the company, the company is considering to outsource testing. What are THREE key challenges that are typical for outsourcing? 1 creditA. Test environment more complexB. Define expectation for tasks and deliverablesC. Clear channels of communicationsD. Possibly different cultures -E. Testing of non-functional requirementsF. Audit trail from requirements to test casesG. Applying test automation –

Answer : B,C,D Topic 7, Scenario 7 \”Test Estimation\” You have been contracted to manage the acceptance testing of a new computer-based reservation system for a travel agency. You have provided an approximate budget estimate for the testing project based on previous experience with similar sized projects. However, the management of the parent company of the travel agency will not commit to the budget until detailed cost estimates are provided. The reservation system is being developed by a third party However, detailed specifications of the software are available, as well as an estimate of the total effort that will be spent in developing the software. The software is to be delivered in four increments, and the functionality to be delivered in each increment has already been agreed on.

Evaluate the status of the project against the defined exit criteria. Which of the following options shows the correct status? 2 credits

  • A. Criteria A = OK, criteria B = OK, criteria C = OK
  • B. Criteria A = NOT OK, criteria B = NOT OK, criteria C = OK
  • C. Criteria A = OK, criteria B = NOT OK, criteria C = NOT OK
  • D. Criteria A = NOT OK, criteria B = NOT OK, criteria C = NOT OK

Answer : B

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Splunk Core Certified User Free Practice Questions

Which of the following searches will return results where fail, 400, and error exist in every event?

  • A. error AND (fail AND 400)
  • B. error OR (fail and 400)
  • C. error AND (fail OR 400)
  • D. error OR fail OR 400

Answer : C

What is the main requirement for creating visualizations using the Splunk UI?

  • A. Your search must transform event data into Excel file format first.
  • B. Your search must transform event data into XML formatted data first.
  • C. Your search must transform event data into statistical data tables first.
  • D. Your search must transform event data into JSON formatted data first.

Answer : B

A field exists in search results, but isn\”™t being displayed in the fields sidebar.How can it be added to the fields sidebar?

  • A. Click All Fields and select the field to add it to Selected Fields.
  • B. Click Interesting Fields and select the field to add it to Selected Fields.
  • C. Click Selected Fields and select the field to add it to Interesting Fields.
  • D. This scenario isn\”™t possible because all fields returned from a search always appear in the fields sidebar.

Answer : A

What is the purpose of using a by clause with the stats command?

  • A. To group the results by one or more fields.
  • B. To compute numerical statistics on each field.
  • C. To specify how the values in a list are delimited.
  • D. To partition the input data based on the split-by fields.

Answer : A

Reference:
https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/Splunk/7.2.6/SearchReference/
Stats#1._Compare_the_difference_between_using_the_stats_and_chart_commands

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Implementing Cisco TelePresence Video Networking Solutions (ITVNS) Free Practice Questions

Given the following:
-> Cisco TelePresence endpoint A: CTS-3000
-> Cisco TelePresence endpoint B: CTS-1000
-> Cisco TelePresence endpoint C: CTS-1300
-> Cisco TelePresence endpoint D: CTS-1000
For a multipoint meeting between these endpoints, only endpoint A calls in.
If this is the only meeting currency active, how many segments are being installed on the Cisco Telepresence Multipoint Ser?

  • A. 0
  • B. 1
  • C. 3
  • D. 6
  • E. 8

Answer : C

Video calls that require interoperation are directly routed to a Cisco MXE 5600 by which one of the following series?

  • A. Tandberg VCS
  • B. Cisco IOS Gatekeeper
  • C. Cisco TelePresence Server
  • D. Cisco Unified Communication Manager

Answer : D

During a multipoint meeting, once flow control is active, what is the maximum number of CTS STMS?

  • A. 3
  • B. 6
  • C. 9
  • D. 12

Answer : C

How much recommended bandwidth-per-second provisioning does a Cisco Telepresence System Frame Rate Codec?

  • A. 11Mb/s
  • B. 15.4 Mb/s
  • C. 18.3 Mb/s
  • D. 19.6 Mb/s

Answer : D

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Disaster Recovery Professional Practice Test Free Practice Questions

Which of the following subphases are defined in the maintenance phase of the life cycle models?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.

  • A. Change control
  • B. Request control
  • C. Release control
  • D. Configuration control

Answer : A,B,C

Fill in the blank with the appropriate phrase.
____________ privilege escalation is the process of attempting to access sources with a higher access, such as a user account trying to access admin privileges.

  • A. Vertical

Answer : A

An organization monitors the hard disks of its employees\’ computers from time to time.Which policy does this pertain to?

  • A. User password policy
  • B. Backup policy
  • C. Privacy policy
  • D. Network security policy

Answer : C

Which of the following statements about a certification authority (CA) is true?

  • A. It is a non-profit organization that sets security standards for e-commerce.
  • B. It is a business-to-consumer (B2C) commerce model that is used for high-volume transactions.
  • C. It is a trusted third-party organization that issues digital certificates to create digital signatures and public key pairs.
  • D. It issues physical certificates that confirm the identity of entities.

Answer : C

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